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Exam Code: PEGACSSA
Exam Name: Pegasystems (PRPC v5.5 Certified Senior System Architect Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 173 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 What purpose and effect does the Obj-Refresh-and-Lock method have? (Choose One)
A. It has no effect if a lock is held and has not expired
B. It will reacquire a lock and will always refresh the contents of the object from the Database
C. If the lock is not held, the method will acquire a lock and always replace the step page contents with
the current values from the database
D. This method has been deprecated as of PRPC 5.3 in support of the Obj-Browse method which handles
refresh and locking automatically
E. This method is highly efficient and will only refresh the object if the content on the clipboard is older
than the current state in the database and will also force lockthe object regardless ofholds the lock
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which one of the following statements is true regarding the PRPC threading model? (Choose One)
A. PRThreads are similar to Java threads and the types include STANDARD, DEVELOPER, and
OPENPORTAL
B. A PRThread is essentially a namespace which allows a Requestor to have separate clipboard pages
that do not interact with each other
C. Multiple PRThreads can be executed concurrently depending on whether multi-threading is enabled
D. All of the above
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which statements in regards to commits in PRPC are false? (Choose Two)
A. All database updates require that the requestor holds a lock on the object
B. The system performs commits automatically when processing for a submit operation of a flow action
completes, for both connector and local flow actions
C. Commit operations can trigger the execution of Declare-Trigger rules
D. Assuming distributed transaction is not configured and the deferred operation list contains operations
for only one database. When the system commits all deferred operations for the requestor, if any of the
writes fail, they all fail
E. The deferred operations will be committed when you use the write-now option with the obj-save
method because this causes a commit to occur
Answer: A,E

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NO.4 Which of the following are virtual memory based caches? (Choose Three)
A. Rule Cache
B. Rules Assembly Cache
C. Rule Resolution Cache
D. Lookup List Cache
E. Static Content Cache
F. Dictionary Cache
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.5 A customer implementation necessitates the usage of Message-driven beans. Which of these
platforms can the solution be deployed on? (Choose Two)
A. JBoss (EAR Deployment)
B. WebLogic (WAR Deployment)
C. WebSphere (EAR Deployment)
D. Tomcat (WAR Deployment)
E. All of the above
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 What four steps must be taken to unit test a connector within a flow when the target interface/system is
not yet available? (Choose Four)
A. Create a Simulation activity
B. Set the connector to simulate in the Simulation data instance and specify the activity
C. Use Tracer and set a breakpoint
D. Define a Connect Simulation instance
E. Test the flow with simulation enabled
F. Create a new Integrator task
Answer: A,B,D,E

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NO.7 What determines which table a work object is persisted to? (Choose One)
A. The Data-Admin-DB-Table record for the class group the work object belongs to and the access group
the current user belongs to
B. The RuleSet the class belongs, and Data-Admin-DB-Table definitions
C. The Data-Admin-DB-Table record associated to the class group the work object belongs to
D. The RuleSet the class belongs to
Answer: C

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NO.8 Why does PRPC create a Data-Agent-Queue instance when you create a Rule-Agent-Queue instance?
(Choose One)
A. Data-Agent-Queue instances are not locked so they allow you to control the behavior of Agents in a
locked RuleSet at runtime
B. Data-Agent-Queue instances are created by PRPC to support the new Queue For Agent functionality
which was provided since PRPC v5.4
C. Data-Agent-Queue instances are created automatically by PRPC whenever the Queue-For-Agent
method is used in an activity step to queue work for the Agent
D. Data-Agent-Queue instances are data instances which are used by the Queue Manager functionality to
allow for concurrent access to a queued piece of work by agents running on multiple nodes
E. Data-Agent-Queue instances represent the master definition of PRPC agents and have been
deprecated as of PRPC v5.4 in favor of using Rule-Agent-Queue
Answer: A

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NO.9 Where can you view the contents of the Rule Instance Cache? (Choose One)
A. Using the SMA you can view the contents of the instance cache which are displayed in the form of an
Excel file
B. Using the Developer Portal you can view the contents of the instance cache which are displayed in the
form of an excel file and is accessed from the tools > instance cache menu
C. By viewing the XML files from the TEMPDIR\PRGenJava\XML directory
D. By viewing the XML files from the pzInsKey column by using JDBC code
Answer: A

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NO.10 The BLOB is stored in the pzPVStream column of a table and contains the data associated with the
instance. Which two statements are false? (Choose Two)
A. Since it is a column in a table in a database, you can extract the BLOB and use it in another system
B. The BLOB contains the same clear text xml you see when clicking the rule data or the View XML option
in the clipboard
C. The PzPVStream
can be eliminated by use of simple tables (those without embedded pages and
page lists)
D. The BLOB enables a single table to store complex data structures that would normally require multiple
tables in a normalized database
Answer: A,B

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NO.11 What does the system pulse do? (Choose Three)
A. It is used by PRPC to synchronize changes to the Data-Agent-Schedule instances whenever a
Rule-Agent-Queue instance is modified
B. It invalidates rule caches on a per node basis using entries in the pr_sys_updatescache table
C. It processes changes to the Lucene indexes that support full text searches
D. It synchronizes the lookup list cache deletions and any rule-file-deletes
E. It is used by PRPC to send out information to PAL on a weekly basis so that performance analysis can
be performed over a period of time
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.12 When a rule executes what is really executed.? (Choose One)
A. XML which is stored in the BLOB
B. Java code which is compiled from the XML stored in the BLOB
C. A class file which is stored in the BLOB
D. A serialized java object which is stored in the BLOB
Answer: B

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NO.13 PRPC can be installed using a WAR or EAR configuration. Which of the following does NOT require an
EAR configuration? (Choose One)
A. JMS message services support need to be provided
B. Support for two-phase commits is required
C. Support for EJB services need to be provided
D. J2EE security is required
E. JSR-94 support is required
Answer: E

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NO.14 Which methods of service integration within PRPC requires the configuration of a listener? (Choose
Two)
A. BPEL
B. HTTP
C. JMS
D. MQ
E. dotNet
Answer: C,D

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NO.15 PegaRULES is installed on a multi-node system, and a copy of the various caches is stored on each
node. Each of these nodes must be updated with rule changes. Which functionality in PRPC manages the
update process? (Choose One)
A. Node-Pulse
B. Rule Cache
C. System-Update
D. System-Pulse
Answer: D

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NO.16 A PRPC installation has 3 nodes. An Agent rule has a single agent listed which takes data from an
external system. It would cause contention issues if it ran on more than one node. What is the
recommended way to ensure the agent only runs in one cluster? (Choose One)
A. Delete the Agent schedule on two nodes
B. Disable the Agent schedule on two of the nodes, either from the Agent Schedule rule form or using the
System Management Application
C. Disable the master agent on two nodes
D. In your Agent activity call a decision table to verify host name of the system (application)
Answer: B

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NO.17 What does the rollback method do? (Choose Two)
A. Cancels/Withdraws any pending obj-save and obj-delete methods
B. Rollback is not supported by PRPC when using a WAR deployment. The only way you can do a
rollback is by using the compensating actions method
C. Rollback is a way to rollback an object to a previous state using the History instance for a work object
D. Rolls back the deferred stack of operations for the specified page
Answer: A,D

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NO.18 Which statement is true regarding how locking works with covers? (Choose One)
A. By default, the cover does not get locked when you open a covered object, but this is configurable
B. By default, the cover is locked when you open a covered object, but this is configurable
C. The cover must always be locked when working on the cover or one of its covered work objects
because updates occur on the cover throughout processing of the covered work objects
D. Cover object locking is identical to that of other work objects, in that it is only locked when it is opened
by a requestor
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which statement best describes the Rules Assembly Cache? (Choose One)
A. The Rules Assembly Cache is a disk based cache that stores the generated XML and resulting class
files, post compilation since what finally gets executed is XML, not java code
B. The Rules Assembly Cache is a memory based cache that reduces PegaRULES database traffic as it
contains copies of rules recently accessed or recently updated by developers
C. The Rules Assembly Cache is a memory based cache that allows Process Commander to rapidly
identify compiled Java CLASS files that correspond to compiled and assembled rules
D. The Rules Assembly Cache is a memory based cache used by PRPC to feed the Instance Cache as
the Instance Cache is the instance of a given rule for which code has been generated
Answer: C

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NO.20 Select the valid modes an Agent can have since PRPC 5.4? (Choose Three)
A. Normal
B. Legacy
C. Standard
D. Advanced
E. Modes are not required to be selected for Agents in PRPC 5.4
Answer: B,C,D

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Exam Code: PEGACBA001
Exam Name: Pegasystems (PRPC v6.1 Certified Business Architect Written Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 101 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which of the following statuses is the standard default status assigned to all new work
objects?
A. Open
B. New
C. Resolved-Completed
D. Start
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which two statements are true about Declarative Expression rules? (Choose two.)
A. They can perform a computation
B. They can constrain a property to a range of values.
C. They can execute an Activity upon creation of a work object.
D. They can display the result of a Decision table
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 When an Application Profile and Application Accelerator process is started, they both create
actual
PRPC work objects that keep track of the choices made and can be saved.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following tools can be used to create one or more properties with a common
Applies
To class?
A. Application Explorer
B. Define Property Wizard
C. PAL
D. Class Explorer
Answer: B

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NO.5 What does "Build For Change(r)" mean?
A. Build applications without change control, in order to complete projects more quickly
B. Launch applications as soon as possible so that performance testing can be done in Production
C. Build applications that are more easily adaptable due to inevitable business change
D. Business architects initially build PRPC applications and system architects subsequently
change them
Answer: C

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NO.6 The Application Accelerator can be utilized without first creating an Application Profile in the
Application Profile wizard.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which two statements are true about work covers and covered work objects? (Choose three.)
A. A covered work object can belong to many work folders
B. Work covers can be nested within other work objects
C. Work covers can become a parent to one or more related work objects
D. Work covers can be resolved automatically when all covered work objects belonging to that
cover are resolved
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.8 Service level rules include which of the following time intervals? (Choose two.)
A. Milestone
B. Requirement
C. Goal
D. Deadline
Answer: C,D

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NO.9 Decision Table rules can be edited in Excel.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.10 Why do Pegasystems best practices suggest limiting flow rules to 15 SmartShapes? (Excluding
Connectors, Notify, Comment, Pool, Swimlane, and Router shapes)
A. Flows with more than 15 shapes cannot be printed
B. More than 15 SmartShapes in one flow rule may result in performance issues
C. In order to improve readability, maintainability, and ease in traceability when debugging the
application processes
D. Flows with more than 15 SmartShapes cannot be updated
Answer: C

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NO.1 How many test cases are needed to test code fragment lines 26 - 32 to achieve 100% multiple
condition coverage? 2 credits [K3]
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which additional set of test cases is needed to achieve both 100% statement coverage and
100% decision coverage? 3 credits [K3]
A)
B)
C)
D)
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is the value of statement coverage achieved by test case 1 from test set A? 2 credits [K3]
A. ? 75% (21 / 28)
B. ? 78% (22 / 28)
C. ? 85% (24 / 28)
D. ? 90% (25 / 28)
Answer: A

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NO.4 The application of multiple condition testing is also being considered.
Which specification-based technique is largely based on the principle of multiple condition testing?
1 credit [K2]
A. Equivalence Partitioning
B. State Transition Testing
C. Decision Table Testing
D. Use Cases
Answer: C

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A. Informal review
B. Inspection
C. Walkthrough
D. Management review
Answer: B

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test the code? 1 credit [K2]
A. Condition testing
B. Multiple condition testing
C. Equivalence partitioning
D. Cause/effect graphing
E. Code reviews
Answer: A,B

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is the incident report of the highest quality? 2 credits [K3]
A. Description: Boundary value not correctly implemented Priority: High Repeatability: Yes Tester:
WVU Test case: 35 (test specification "bonus program"), V1.2
B. Description: Boundary value not correctly implemented for bonus Priority: Medium Tester: WVU
Test case: 35 (test specification "bonus program")
C. Description: Boundary value not correctly implemented for bonus (line 26: 10 according to design,
now 5 implemented) Priority: High Repeatability: Yes Tester: WVU Test case: 35 (test specification
"bonus program"), V1.2
D. Description: Boundary value not correctly implemented for bonus Priority: High Repeatability: Yes
Tester: WVU Test case: 35 (test specification "bonus program"), V1.2
Answer: C

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NO.8 How many test cases are needed to test code fragment lines 26 - 32 to achieve 100% condition
determination coverage? 2 credits [K3]
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: B

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Exam Code: CTAL-TA_Syll2012
Exam Name: ISQI (ISTQB Certified Tester Advanced Level - Test Analyst (Syllabus 2012))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 What is the MOST important reason why test conditions should be understandable by
stakeholders?
[K2] 1 credit
A. They should be able to review the test conditions and provide feedback to the test analyst
B. They should be able to use them as a basis for designing test cases
C. They should be able to use them to establish traceability to requirements
D. Test documentation should always be understandable by all stakeholders
Answer: A

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NO.2 Working together with the test manager during test planning, which of the following activities
is NOT expected to be performed by the test analyst?
[K2] 1 credit
A. Review the test estimates of the test manager
B. Review the test plan for non-functional testing
C. Organize adequate test resources
D. Being involved in risk management sessions
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following criteria on test progress would enable the business to determine a
likely 'go live' date?
(i) Number of tests planned versus number of tests executed
(ii) Number of high priority defects outstanding
(iii) The test team's timesheets in order to show how much effort has been devoted to testing
(iv) Number of tests passed and number failed
(v) Number of defects found in each development area
(vi) The rate at which defects are being found
[K2] 1 credit
A. (ii), (iii), (iv)
B. (i), (iii), (v)
C. (i), (ii), (vi)
D. (iv), (v), (vi)
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following statements is TRUE with respect to when the test analyst should
become involved during different lifecycle models?
[K2] 1 credit
A. In a sequential V-model project the test analyst should start test analysis and design concurrently
with coding
B. In Agile projects the test analyst should start test analysis and design concurrently with coding
C. In a sequential model project the test analyst should start test analysis and design concurrently
with software design
D. In an embedded iterative model the test analyst should expect to be involved in the standard
planning and design aspects
Answer: D

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NO.5 As a test analyst you are involved in the early stages of an acceptance test for a Product Data
Management system. You are asked to write test designs and test cases based on use cases. An early
version of the system is also already available. It is a known fact that on the implementation level
many things will change (including the user-interface). The tests will be carried by end-users with
much domain knowledge who have also been involved in the project defining the user requirements
and reviewing documentation.
What is the BEST option regarding the level of detail and documentation required for test cases in
the project?
[K4] 3 credits
A. Detailed concrete test cases since many re-runs of the tests are expected
B. Logical test cases supported by concrete test cases to allow for traceability and enable future
changes
C. Concrete test cases only since the end-users have extensive domain knowledge
D. Logical test cases only since the end-user have extensive domain knowledge and many changes
are expected thus reducing testware maintenance effort
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following tasks and responsibilities do NOT belong to that of a test analyst in the
context of evaluating exit criteria and reporting?
[K2] 1 credit
A. The test analyst should be able to use the reporting tools
B. The test analyst is responsible for supplying accurate information
C. The test analyst will contribute to the final report at the end of the testing
D. The test analyst should write final test reports objectively
Answer: D

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NO.7 As a test analyst you are gathering data to support accurate metrics. Which of the following
metrics would be MOST appropriate to use to monitor product quality?
[K2] 1 credit
A. Defects found versus defects expected
B. Tests run and tests passed
C. Test resources spent versus budget
D. Compliance to entry criteria
E. Product risks outstanding and new risks introduced
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.8 Which of the following is a type of testing that someone in the role of a test analyst, working
with the test manager, should typically consider and plan for?
[K2] 1 credit
A. Security testing
B. Reliability testing
C. Accessibility testing
D. Performance testing
Answer: C

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Exam Code: PRINCE2
Exam Name: PRINCE2 (PRINCE2 Foundation)
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Total Q&A: 486 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 What environment does PRINCE2 assume?
A. Third party
B. Customer/Supplier
C. Fixed-price contract
D. Management and Specialist
Answer: B

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NO.2 Identify the missing word in the following sentence... A PRINCE2 project has defined for each
project objective to establish limits of delegated authority?
A. Allowances
B. Tolerances
C. Roles
D. Deviations
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which is one of the six aspects of project performance that needs to be managed?
A. Issues
B. People
C. Benefit
D. Tolerance
Answer: C

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NO.4 Identify the missing words in the following sentence... A PRINCE2 project is and controlled on
a stage-by-stage basis?
A. Planned, monitored
B. Developed, reported
C. Designed, assigned
D. Planned, produced
Answer: A

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NO.5 Identify the missing words in the following sentence... A principle of PRINCE2 is that a project
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A. Roles and responsibilities
B. Specialist teams with appropriate technical skills
C. Management jobs with job descriptions
D. Senior managers at all levels of the project management team
Answer: A

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NO.6 According to PRINCE2, which of the following are the aspects of project performance to be
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A. Processes, themes, principles
B. Time, cost, quality, people
C. Time, cost, quality
D. Time, cost, quality, scope, benefits, risk
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following is FALSE?
A. Manage risks is a PRINCE2 principle
B. Manage by exception is a PRINCE2 principle
C. Focus on products is a PRINCE2 principle
D. Tailor to suit the project environment is a PRINCE2 principle
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which is NOT a PRINCE2 integrated element?
A. The principles
B. The techniques
C. The themes
D. Tailoring PRINCE2 to the project environment
Answer: B

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NO.9 According to PRINCE2, which of the following is a characteristic of a project compared to that
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A. Incurs cost
B. Introduces business change
C. Delivers benefits
D. Creates products
Answer: B

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NO.10 Identify the missing word in the following sentence... A PRINCE2 project focuses on the
definition and delivery of, in particular their quality requirements?
A. Benefits
B. Products
C. Activities
D. Outcomes
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which PRINCE2 principle supports planning only to a level of detail that is manageable and
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A. Continued business justification
B. Manage by exception
C. Focus on products
D. Manage by stages
Answer: D

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A. Quality
B. Risk
C. Change
D. Organization
Answer: B

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A. Senior User
B. Business Case
C. Change
D. Cost
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which is a benefit of using PRINCE2?
A. Stakeholders are kept out of planning and decision making
B. Participants understand each other's roles and needs
C. Stakeholders are not involved in assuring the project work
D. All problems are escalated to all stakeholders
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which is a characteristic of a project?
A. Are risk free
B. Have no uncertainty
C. Are managed as part of business as usual
D. Are cross-functional
Answer: D

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Exam Code: MSC-131
Exam Name: Motorola Solutions (Design and Deploy AirDefense Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 103 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 What security exists for the communication between sensors and the ADSP appliance?
A. EAP-TTLS and SSL
B. PEAP and SSL
C. PKI and SSL
D. EAP-TLS and SSL
Answer: C

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NO.2 Broadcasting the SSID and allowing the access point to respond to clients with no SSID makes it easier
for the clients, but some consider it a security loophole. The theory for disallowing these two practices is
that it helps ° h i d ¡± t h e n e t w ork
What is the problem with this theory?
A. Hiding the SSID turns off the beacons thus disabling passive scanning
B. Not responding to null SSIDs causes the EAP process to break down
C. These values must be present in order for intrusion detection systems to function
D. The SSID will still be present in probe request frames and can be seen with a protocol analyzer
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following best defines a "security risk"?
A. The likelihood of being targeted by a given attack, of an attack being successful, and general exposure
to a given threat.
B. The source and means of a particular type of attack.
C. The security flaws in a system that allow an attack to be successful.
D. Reduced Instruction Set Kernel.
Answer: A

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NO.4 You have configured your ADSP appliance to use a RADIUS server to validate user credentials upon
GUI logon. However, users continue to be validated directly by ADSP. What additional step must be taken
to ensure GUI users are authenticated via the RADIUS server you configured when they are logging into
ADSP?
A. The ADSP appliance must be rebooted to ensure the settings are recorded properly
B. Each user account must be configured to use the correct RADIUS server for authentication
C. You must log into the CLI using the SMXMGR account and run the Enforce Credentials command
D. Log into the GUI with your admin account and click on the Synchronize RADIUS Accounts button in
Appliance Manager
Answer: B

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NO.5 You are the administrator of a very large ADSP installation protecting an international WLAN
deployment. Running a compliance report each day for your boss takes a great deal of your time in the
mornings. What can you do using ADSP to reduce the amount of your time it takes to render this
information and deliver it to your boss?
A. Create a Guest account for your boss. Teach them to run their own each day, leaving you free for other
tasks.
B. Create an Admin account for your boss. Teach them to run their own each day, leaving you free for
other tasks.
C. Add the desired report to the Data Collection Polling interval with a daily schedule to be emailed to your
boss.
D. Add the report to your favorites list. Then schedule it to run at an off peak time and to automatically be
emailed to your boss each day.
Answer: D

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NO.6 How can the Wireless Intrusion Protection System (WIPS) feature of the Motorola Solutions
AirDefense Services Platform (ADSP) be used to protect your Wi-Fi network?
A. The WIPS system can remove rogue access points from neighboring networks
B. The WIPS system can utilize RF Jamming to keep your channels clear.
C. The WIPS system can identify wired leakage and other network vulnerabilities
D. The WIPS system can stop neighboring devices from using your channels
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is the purpose of the Bonding command in the ADSP CLI.?
A. The Bonding command is used to link sensors to the correct container in the ADSP tree.
B. The Bonding command is used to enable the Primary and Secondary ADSP appliances to synchronize.
C. The Bonding command is used to enable both of the NIC's on ADSP's system board to act as one for
high availability.
D. The Bonding command is used to ensure that both the Primary and Secondary ADSP appliances are
configured to use the same IP address.
Answer: C

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NO.8 When would the configuration of ADSP include the use of a RADIUS server?
A. When LDAP is not available
B. When sensor validation is required
C. When sensors require a VPN connection
D. When centralized authentication is required
Answer: D

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NO.9 There was a rogue AP on your network as detected by ADSP. The rogue was displayed in your Alarms.
When you run a wireless security posture details report for the same time range, the rogue does not
appear in the report. What is the most likely cause for the rogue not being in the report?
A. The report was run for a different scope than the one that detected the rogue.
B. Your account was not created in the scope level where the rogue was detected.
C. You are logged into ADSP as a guest account which lacks the permission to run the report.
D. The rogue device has been removed from the network and the corresponding alarm is now inactive.
Answer: A

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NO.10 You used the Report Builder to create a custom template to support your PCI compliance initiative.
Two weeks later you decide to use the report but you're not quite sure where to locate it. How would you
access this template?
A. By selecting it in the Custom Reports found in the reporting feature
B. By using the search feature in the Web reporting interface
C. By selecting it under the Inactive category on the Reports page
D. By using the Templates drop down box in the Report Builder application
Answer: A

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NO.11 Spectrum Analysis can be performed using different modes of operation. Which of following modes
would be the most appropriate to use if you need to perform a Spectrum Analysis and capture information
about the data link layer (Layer 2 of OSI model)?
A. Dual Layer Scan Mode
B. Continuous Scan Mode
C. Background Scan Mode
D. Interference Scan Mode
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following appropriately characterizes a rogue access point (AP)?
A. An AP that is causing Co-Channel interference with your APs.
B. An AP that is not the same brand as your customers APs.
C. An AP that is on your wired network without proper authorization.
D. An AP that is not using the security required by corporate policy.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Your company processes and stores credit card information in a corporate database. You must be able
to determine the status of the company's compliance to the Payment Card Industry (PCI) standard with
regard to wireless device use. How can this be accomplished using ADSP?
A. By running a PCI compliance report at each of the retail store levels of your ADSP tree.
B. By running a PCI compliance report at the accounting department level of your ADSP tree,
C. By running a PCI compliance report at the system level of your ADSP tree.
D. By running a PCI compliance report at network operations center level of your ADSP tree.
Answer: C

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NO.14 A new coffee shop opens in your building offering hot-spot internet access. Several of your users are
connecting to the hot-spot while at their desks to bypass your firewall rules. What is the best thing that can
be done using the ADSP system to prevent this?
A. Integrate with the firewall using SNMP and import the same firewall rules.
B. Create a termination policy to prevent accidental associations of authorized AP's.
C. Create a termination policy to prevent authorized stations from using ad-hoc networks.
D. Create a termination policy to prevent accidental associations of your work stations to unauthorized
networks.
Answer: D

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NO.15 A requirement for seamless roaming in a Robust Security network is that the access points receive the
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must be included in that frame?
A. Any 802.1g VLAN tags.
B. The IP address and subnet mask.
C. The randomly generated shared secret.
D. The MAC address of the old access point.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: S90-01A
Exam Name: SOA Certified Professional (Fundamental SOA & Service-Oriented Computing)
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Total Q&A: 76 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which of the following is not a benefit of maintaining a vendor-neutral and business-driven context for a
service-oriented architecture?
A. Establish a technology architecture with a fixed scope and purpose that remains unchanged,
regardless of how the business may need to change over time.
B. Avoid establishing a technology architecture that will need to be replaced in the near future when it no
longer adequately fulfills business requirements.
C. Leverage new technological innovation in order to maximize the fulfillment of business requirements.
D. Establish a technology architecture that can stay in alignment with how the business may need to
change over time.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following statements does not make sense?
A. Intrinsic interoperability is important because it helps increase the quantity of integration projects that
may be required to accommodate new business requirements, thereby fostering agility.
B. Intrinsic interoperability is important because it enables services to exchange data without having to
resort to transformation technologies.
C. Intrinsic interoperability is important because it is fundamental to enabling services to be repeatedly
composed.
D. Intrinsic interoperability is important because one of the goals of service-oriented computing is to
increase intrinsic interoperability.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Below are four statements about business and technology alignment, as it pertains to service-oriented
computing. Which of these statements is false?
A. Business and technology alignment represents the extent to which an IT enterprise and its automated
systems can mirror and evolve in alignment with the business.
B. Service-oriented computing promotes the abstraction and accurate encapsulation and expression of
business logic in services. This supports business and technology alignment.
C. The pursuit of business and technology alignment can be supported by the collaboration of business
analysts and technology experts during analysis and modeling phases.
D. In order for an IT enterprise to increase business and technology alignment, its business analysts must
become more technical and assume the responsibilities of technology experts so that they can
independently design quality business services that take both business and technology considerations
into account.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following statements is false?
A. The governance burden of services is not impacted by the SOA project delivery approach.
B. The bottom-up approach to SOA project delivery results in less up-front impact, but will usually
increase the eventual governance burden of services.
C. Alternative approaches exist that provide a compromise between bottom-up and top-down SOA project
delivery approaches.
D. Up-front analysis as part of a top-down SOA project delivery approach helps reduce the eventual
governance burden of services.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following statements is true.?
A. To apply service-orientation requires the use of Web services.
B. Web services are required in order to build service-oriented solutions.
C. When discussing SOA and service-oriented computing, the term "Web service" must always be
synonymous with (have the same meaning as) the term "service".
D. None of these statements are true.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following statements is false?
A. The design standardization of service contracts helps increase interoperability between services.
B. Design standardization can introduce organizational and cultural challenges because it requires that
the design standards be regularly enforced.
C. The design standardization of service contracts helps avoid the need for transformation technologies.
D. Design standardization is not relevant to the design of service compositions. It is only relevant to the
design of individual services.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following statements accurately describes the strategic benefit of Increased Federation?
A. A target state whereby all services are always consistently delivered as Web services.
B. A target state in which the entire enterprise has been successfully service-oriented.
C. A target state whereby the enterprise has adopted SOA by replacing all legacy environments with
custom-developed services.
D. A target state whereby standardized service contracts have been established to express a consistent
and unified service endpoint layer.
Answer: D

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NO.8 In order to achieve __________ we have traditionally required __________ projects. With
service-orientation, we aim to establish an intrinsic level of __________ within each service so as to
reduce the need for __________ effort.
A. vendor diversity, integration, vendor diversity, design
B. agility, development, scalability, development
C. interoperability, integration, interoperability, integration
D. autonomy, integration, statelessness, integration
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following statements is false?
A. A service is a unit of logic to which service-orientation has been applied to a meaningful extent.
B. Services are designed to increase the need for integration.
C. Services are the fundamental building blocks of service-oriented solutions.
D. A service composition is comprised of services.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following statements is true?
A. "Contract first" design is important to SOA because it makes you think about service contract design
options at the same time that you are building the underlying service logic.
B. "Contract first" design is important to SOA because it forces you to establish standardized service
contracts prior to the development of the underlying service logic.
C. "Contract first" design is important to SOA because without a contract, services cannot be invoked.
However, there is no preference as to when, during the service delivery lifecycle, the contract should be
designed or established.
D. "Contract first" design is an unproven design technique that is not commonly employed when
delivering service-oriented solutions and is therefore not considered important to SOA.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: S90-19A
Exam Name: SOA Certified Professional (Advanced SOA Security)
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Total Q&A: 83 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 How can the use of pre-compiled XPath expressions help avoid attacks?
A. Pre-compiled XPath expressions execute faster and therefore help avoid denial of service attacks.
B. Pre-compiled XPath expressions reduce the chance of missing escape characters, which helps avoid
XPath injection attacks
C. Pre-compiled XPath expressions contain no white space, which helps avoid buffer overrun attacks
D. They can't because XPath expressions cannot be pre-compiled
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following can directly contribute to making a service composition architecture more
vulnerable to attacks?
A. Reliance on intermediaries
B. Reliance on transport-layer security
C. Reliance on open networks
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.3 Service A's logic has been implemented using managed code. An attacker sends an XML bomb to
Service A. As a result, Service A's memory consumption started increasing at an alarming rate and then
decreased back to normal. The service was not affected by this attack and quickly recovered. Which of
the following attacks were potentially avoided?
A. XML parser attack
B. Buffer overrun attack
C. Insufficient authorization attack
D. Denial of service
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 The Trusted Subsystem pattern is applied to a service that provides access to a database. Select the
answer that best explains why this service is still at risk of being subjected to an insufficient authorization
attack.
A. Attackers can steal confidential data by monitoring the network traffic that occurs between the service
and the database.
B. Because the Service Perimeter Guard pattern was also not applied, the database is not protected by a
firewall.
C. If an attacker gains access to the security credentials used by the service to access the database, the
attacker can access the database directly.
D. None of the above.
Answer: C

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NO.5 When designing XML schemas to avoid data-centric threats, which of the following are valid
considerations?
A. The maxOccurs attribute needs to be specified using a restrictive value.
B. The <xsd:any> element needs to be avoided.
C. The <xsd:restriction> element can be used to create more restrictive user-defined simple types.
D. All of the above.
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 The use of session keys and symmetric cryptography results in:
A. Increased performance degradation
B. Increased reliability degradation
C. Reduced message sizes
D. None of the above
Answer: D

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NO.7 The application of the Service Loose Coupling principle does not relate to the use of security policies
as part of service contracts.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.8 ___________ is an industry standard that describes mechanisms for issuing, validating, renewing and
cancelling security tokens.
A. WS-Security
B. WS-Trust
C. WS-SecureConversation
D. WS-SecurityPolicy
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following types of attack always affect the availability of a service?
A. Exception generation attack
B. SQL injection attack
C. XPath injection attack
D. None of the above
Answer: D

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NO.10 An alternative to using a ___________ is to use a __________.
A. Public key, private key
B. Digital signature, symmetric key
C. Public key, key agreement security session
D. Digital signature, asymmetric key
Answer: C

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NO.11 The Service Perimeter Guard pattern has been applied to help avoid denial of service attacks for a
service inventory. As a result, services within the service inventory are only accessible via a perimeter
service However, denial of service attacks continue to succeed and services within the service inventory
become unavailable to external service consumers. What is the likely cause of this?
A. The application of the Service Perimeter Guard pattern needs to be combined with the application of
the Message Screening pattern in order to mitigate denial of service attacks.
B. The perimeter service itself is the victim of denial of service attacks. As a result, none of the services
inside the service inventory can be accessed by external service consumers.
C. The Trusted Subsystem pattern should have been applied so that each service has a dedicated trusted
subsystem.
D. The Service Perimeter Guard pattern does not help avoid denial of service attacks.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Service A has recently been the victim of XPath injection attacks. Messages sent between Service A
and Service C have traditionally been protected via transport-layer security. A redesign of the service
composition architecture introduces Service B, which is positioned as an intermediary service between
Service A and Service C. The Message Screening pattern was applied to the design of Service B. As part
of the new service composition architecture, transport-layer security is replaced with message-layer
security for all services, but Service A and Service C continue to share the same encryption key. After the
new service composition goes live, Service A continues to be subjected to XPath injection attacks. What
is the reason for this?
A. The message screening logic can only work for Service C. Therefore, Service A is not protected.
B. Because message-layer security is being used, it is not possible for the message screening logic in
Service B to inspect messages without having the encryption key that is shared by Service A and Service
C.
C. XPath injection attacks are not prevented by message screening logic or message-layer security.
D. None of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Service A needs to be designed so that it supports message integrity and so that only part of the
messages exchanged by the service are encrypted. You are asked to create the security policy for this
service. What type of policy assertions should you use?
A. Token assertions
B. Protection assertions
C. Security binding assertions
D. Service A's security requirements cannot be expressed in a policy
Answer: B

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NO.14 The use of XML schemas for data validation helps avoid several types of data-centric threats.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.15 Security policies defined using WS-SecurityPolicy can be used to convey which of the following
requirements to a service consumer?
A. Whether transport-layer or message-layer security needs to be used
B. The encryption type that needs to be used for transport-layer security
C. The algorithms that need to be used for cryptographic operations
D. The type of security token that must be used
Answer: A,C,D

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