2014年1月31日星期五

Mile2 certification ML0-220 exam targeted training

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Exam Code: ML0-220
Exam Name: Mile2 (Certified Network Security Administrator..)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 116 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 Zip/Jaz drives, SyQuest, and Bemoulli boxes are very transportable and are often
the standard for:
A. Data exchange in many businesses
B. Data change in many businesses
C. Data compression in many businesses
D. Data interchange in many businesses
Answer: A

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NO.2 Your company's off site backup facility is intended to operate an information
processing facility, having no computer or
communications equipment, but having flooring, electrical wiring, air conditioning,
etc. This is better known as a____
A. Hot site
B. Duplicate processing facility
C. Cold site
D. Warm site
Answer: C

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NO.3 The most common method of social engineering is:
A. Looking through users' trash for information
B. Calling users and asking for information
C. E-mailing users and asking for information
D. E-mail
Answer: B

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15.The full form of IDS is ____________
A. Intrusion Detection System
B. Intrusion Deactivation System
C. Information Distribution System
D. Intrusion Detection Software
Answer: A

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17.What is an Intranet?
A. A private network using World Wide Web technology
B. A private network using digital telephony services
C. A public network using World Wide Web technology
D. A public network using digital telephony services
Answer: A

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18.Which of the following is the best description of" separation of duties"?
A. Assigning different parts of tasks to different employees
B. Employees are canted only the privileges necessary to perform their tasks
C. Each employee is granted specific information that is required to carry out the job
function
D. Screening employees before assigning them to a position
Answer: A

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19.Who is the main person responsible for installation and maintenance of the
computer systems?
A. Chief Executive Officer
B. System Supplier
C. System Designer
D. Business Process Owner
Answer: B

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20.You have a network address of 196.202.56.0 with four subnets. You wont to allow
for maximum number of Hosts. What is the
subnet mask you need to apply?
A. 255.255.255.224
B. 255.255.224.0
C. 255.255.255.128
D. 255.255.255.192
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following is TRUE then transmitting Secret Information over the
network?
A. Secret Information should be transmitted in an encrypted form
B. Secret Information should be transmitted as a plain-text
C. Secret Information should be transmitted in a compressed form
D. Secret Information should be transmitted along with user id
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which out of the following is/are preventive measures against password sniffing?
A. Passwords must not be sent through email in plain text
B. Passwords must not be stored in plain text on any electronic media
C. Passwords may be electronically stored if encrypted
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.6 The _____ application provides IP address-to-hostname or vice-versa lookup:
A. FTP
B. Telnet
C. DNS
D. ICMP
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following rules related to a Business Continuity Plan/Disaster
Recovery Plan is not correct?
A. In order to facilitate recovery, a single plan should coverall locations
B. There should be requirements for forming a committee to decide a course of action.
These decisions should be made ahead of time
and incorporated into the plan
C. In its procedures and tasks, the plan should refer to functions, not specific individuals
D. Critical vendors should be contacted ahead of time to validate equipment that can be
obtained in a timely manner
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following is true about authentication?
A. Authentication means that information can be accessed when needed by authorized
personnel
B. Authentication means that passwords can be accessed when needed by authorized
personnel
C. Authentication means the positive verification of the user/device ma system
D. Authentication means that only authorized persons modify information
Answer: C

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NO.9 What are the challenges associated with VPN implementation?
A. Complexity of infrastructure
B. Addressing and routing and administration
C. Difficulty with centralized management of client policy
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following is NOT a good practice for audit logs?
A. Audit Logs should be accessible to all users at all times
B. Audit Logs should be accessible to security personnel only
C. Audit Logs should contain unsuccessful login attempts
D. Audit Logs should not contain any passwords
Answer: A

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NO.11 An alternate site configured with necessary system hardware, supporting
infrastructure and an on site staff able to respond to an
activation of a contingency plan 24 hours a day,7 days a week is a
A. Hot site
B. Cold site
C. Warm site
D. None of the above
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which of the following c1assify under techno crime?
A. Stolen customer account details
B. Virus attack
C. Server failure
D. Hurricane
Answer: A

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NO.13 Can a user use Personal Certificates to control server access?
A. SSL can also be used to verify the users' identity to the server
B. NO, there is no such method
C. It can be used through web security
D. None of the above
Answer: A

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NO.14 Firewalls at this level know a great deal about what is going on and can be very
selective in granting access:
A. Layer 3
B. Layer 4
C. Layer 6
D. Layer 7
Answer: D

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NO.15 The Musical Instrument Digital Interface (MIDI) standard is used for digital music.
Which OSI layer does this standard belong to?
A. Session
B. Data Link
C. Application
D. Presentation
Answer: D

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Exam Code: SC0-402
Exam Name: SCP (Network Defense and Countermeasures (NDC))
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Total Q&A: 275 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 Signatures are generally divided into what three categories?
A. Corruptions
B. Exploits
C. Accesses
D. DoS attacks
E. Reconnaissance
Answer: BDE

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NO.2 Which of the following best describes the Total Replacement Model?
A. The total replacement model makes use of the acknowledged skills and abilities of the existing
personnel. Knowing that assets
have very specific dollar values assigned to them, the choice on how to manage the asset is based on the
experience of the
personnel.
B. Before incurring the cost for replacing of an inoperative asset, check for maintenance agreements that
may include the cost of
repair or the actual repair itself. Nevertheless, the total replacement model should focus on the repairing
of
the downed asset to its
working status within the network infrastructure. Keep in mind that after hardware costs, costs for the
reloading or replacement of
software can be a large cost factor as well.
C. Assets will typically cost much more than the original capital outlay that it took to purchase it long ago.
Replacement costs can be
very high and a decision to exercise this model should not be made in haste. There are also depreciation
issues to deal with as well.
In any case, this model should be the last resort because of cost and may be the most time consuming.
D. The total replacement model is the transference of risk to an insurance company that covers the costs
of
replacing the critical
assets within your network. The drawbacks are increase in premiums after making a claim, high
premiums
anyway, down time
while the insurance company is processing the claim, and claim may not pay what replacement costs are
today.
E. The total replacement model makes use of preventive measures and regular service as well as
updates
such as Service Packs,
maintenance updates, and patches, before deciding to replace the asset. Preventive measures can also
improve the chances of the
replacement model working better than if the system had no preventive measures ever taken.
Answer: C

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NO.3 You are considering adding layers to your existing authentication system. Reading through some of
the vendor literature on logon solutions, it frequently mentions two and three factor authentication.
Your assistant asks you to describe the difference between the two. Select the options that correctly
describe two-factor and three-factor authentication:
A. Two-factor authentication is the process providing something you have along with something you
know.
B. Two-factor authentication is the process of providing two forms of authentication, such as a username
and a password.
C. Two-factor authentication is the process of authenticating twice during the login sequence to verify user
identity.
D. Three-factor authentication is the process of providing something you have along with something you
know and something you are.
E. Three-factor authentication is the process of providing three forms of authentication, such as
username,
password, and sitting at
the physical machine to login.
F. Three-factor authentication is the process of authenticating three times during the login sequence to
verify user identity.
Answer: AD

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NO.4 You have been hired at a large company to manage network security. Prior to your arrival, there
was no one dedicated to security, so you are starting at the beginning. You hold a meeting and are
discussing the main functions and features of network security. One of your assistants asks what the
function of Confidentiality in network security is. Which of the following best describes
Confidentiality?
A. Confidentiality verifies users to be who they say they are. In data communications, authenticating the
sender is necessary to verify
that the data came from the right source. The receiver is authenticated as well to verify that the data is
going to the right
destination.
B. Data communications as well as emails need to be protected in order to maintain appropriate levels of
privacy and confidentiality.
Network security must provide a secure channel for the transmission of data and email that does not allow
eavesdropping by
unauthorized users. Data confidentiality ensures the privacy of data on the network system.
C. The security must limit user privileges to minimize the risk of unauthorized access to sensitive
information and areas of the
network that only authorized users should only be allowed to access.
D. Security must be established to prevent parties in a data transaction from denying their participation
after the business transaction
has occurred. This establishes Confidentiality for the transaction itself for all parties involved in the
transaction.
E. Confidentiality is a security principle that ensures the continuous accuracy of data and information
stored within network systems.
Data must be kept from unauthorized modification, forgery, or any other form of corruption either from
malicious threats or
corruption that is accidental in nature.
Answer: B

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NO.5 You were recently hired as the security administrator of a small business. You are
reviewing the current state of security in the network and find that the current logging
system must be immediately modified. As the system is currently configured, auditing
has no practical value. Which of the following are the reasons that the current auditing
has little value?
A. The logs go unchecked.
B. The logs are automatically deleted after three months.
C. The logs are deleted using FIFO and capped at 500Kb.
D. The only auditing is successful file access events.
E. The logs are deleted using FIFO and capped at 5000Kb.
Answer: AD

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NO.6 You are the firewall administrator at your company and the network administrators have decided to
implement a PPTP VPN solution, which of these ports would you need to allow through the firewall
to allow these VPN sessions into your network?
A. 1723
B. 2317
C. 1273
D. 1372
E. 7132
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following best describes the Repair Model?
A. The model makes use of preventive measures and regular service as well as updates such as Service
Packs, maintenance updates,
and patches. Preventive measures can also improve the chances of the repair model working better than
if
the system had no
preventive measures ever taken.
B. The repair model is the transference of risk to an insurance company that covers the costs of replacing
the critical assets within
your network. The drawbacks are increase in premiums after making a claim, high premiums anyway,
down time while the
insurance company is processing the claim, and claim may not pay what replacement costs are today.
C. Assets will typically cost much more than the original capital outlay that it took to purchase it long ago.
Repair costs can be very
high and a decision to exercise this model should not be made in haste. There are also depreciation
issues
to deal with as well. In
any case, this model should be the last resort because of cost and may be the most time consuming.
D. The repair model makes use of the acknowledged skills and abilities of the existing personnel.
Knowing that assets have very
specific dollar values assigned to them, the choice on how to manage the asset is based on the
experience
of the personnel.
E. Before incurring the cost for repair of an inoperative asset, check for maintenance agreements that
may
include the cost of repair
or the actual repair itself. Nevertheless, the repair model should focus on the restoration of the downed
asset to its working status
within the network infrastructure. Keep in mind that after hardware costs, costs for the reloading or
replacement of software can
be a large cost factor as well.
Answer: E

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NO.8 Which of the following best describes the Insurance Model?
A. Before incurring the cost for insuring an inoperative asset, check for maintenance agreements that may
include the cost of
insurance itself.
B. The insurance model is the transference of risk to an insurance company that covers the costs of
replacing the critical assets within
your network. The drawbacks are increase in premiums after making a claim, high premiums anyway,
down time while the
insurance company is processing the claim, and claim may not pay what replacement costs are today.
C. The insurance model makes use of preventive measures and regular service as well as updates such
as
Service Packs, maintenance
updates, and patches. Preventive measures can also improve the chances of the insurance model
working
better than if the system
had no preventive measures ever taken.
D. The insurance model makes use of the acknowledged skills and abilities of the existing personnel.
Knowing that assets have very
specific dollar values assigned to them, the choice on how to manage the asset is based on the
experience
of the personnel.
E. Assets will typically cost much more than the original capital outlay that it took to purchase it long ago.
Insurance costs can be
very high and a decision to exercise this model should not be made in haste. There are also depreciation
issues to deal with as well.
Answer: B

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NO.9 You are the firewall administrator at your company and the network administrators have
decided to implement a VPN solution that will use L2TP. Which port or ports would you
need to allow through the firewall to allow the L2TP traffic to reach the VPN server
inside your network from a remote client?
A. TCP 1723
B. UDP 47
C. UDP 1701
D. TCP 443
E. UDP 500
Answer: C

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NO.10 The main reason you have been hired at a company is to bring the network security of the
organization up to current standards. A high priority is to have a full security audit of the network
as soon as possible. You have chosen an Independent Audit and are describing it to your coworkers.
Which of the following best describes an Independent Audit?
A. An independent audit is usually conducted by external or outside resources and may be a review or
audit of detailed audit logs.
B. The independent audit is usually done by the current network administrators who ensure the security
measures are up to
international standards.
C. The independent audit is typically done by an internal team who ensures the security measures are up
to
international standards.
D. The independent audit is usually done by internal resources to examine the current daily and on-going
activities within a network
system for compliance with an established security policy.
E. The independent audit is typically done by a contracted outside team of security experts who check for
policy compliance.
Answer: A

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NO.11 What technology is being employed to resist SYN floods by having each side of the connection
attempt create its own sequence number (This sequence number contains a synopsis of the
connection so that if/when the connection attempt is finalized the fist part of the attempt can be
re-created from the sequence number)?
A. SYN cookie
B. SYN floodgate
C. SYN gate
D. SYN damn
E. SYN flood break
Answer: A

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NO.12 During a discussion of asset classification and protection with a coworker, you realize that your
coworker does not know the basic concepts of asset protection. You are asked to describe the types of
asset protection. Which of the following describes the concept of an infeasible protection of an asset?
A. The cost to protect the asset is greater than the cost of recovery of the asset
B. The cost to replace the asset is less than the cost of recovery of the asset
C. the cost to protect the asset is infeasible to determine
D. The cost to replace the asset is greater than the cost of recovery of the asset
E. The cost to protect the asset is less than the cost of recovery of the asset
Answer: A

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NO.13 Your company has decided to allow certain people to work from home. The work that
they do, does not require that they be in the office for anything more than meetings. In
addition, they already have high-speed DSL connections at their homes for personal use.
You have been given the task of figuring out how to get your coworkers to connect to
your company's network securely and reliably. What technology can you use to solve
your problem most effectively?
A. Dedicated Leased Lines (ISDN or T1)
B. Dial-Up via PSTN lines.
C. VPN
D. IPChains
E. IDS
Answer: C

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NO.14 You have been hired at a large company to manage network. Prior to your arrival, there
was no one dedicated to security, so you are starting at the beginning. You hold a
meeting and are discussing the main functions and features of network security. One of
your assistants asks what the function of Integrity in network security is. Which of the
following best describes Integrity?
A. The security must limit user privileges to minimize the risk of unauthorized access to sensitive
information and areas of the
network that only authorized users should only be allowed to access.
B. Integrity verifies users to be who they say they are. In data communications, the integrity of the sender
is necessary to verify that
the data came from the right source. The receiver is authenticated as well to verify that the data is going
to
the right destination.
C. Data communications as well as emails need to be protected for privacy and Integrity. Integrity ensures
the privacy of data on the
network system.
D. Integrity is a security principle that ensures the continuous accuracy of data and information stored
within network systems. Data
must be kept from unauthorized modification, forgery, or any other form of corruption either from
malicious threats or corruption
that is accidental in nature. Upon receiving the email or data communication, integrity must be verified to
ensure that the message
has not been altered, modified, or added to or subtracted from in transit by unauthorized users.
E. Security must be established to prevent parties in a data transaction from denying their participation
after the business transaction
has occurred. This establishes integrity for the transaction itself for all parties involved in the transaction.
Answer: D

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NO.15 During a discussion of asset classification and protection with a coworker, you realize that your
coworker does not know the basic concepts of asset protection. You are asked to describe the types of
asset protection. Which of the following describes the concept of feasible protection of an asset?
A. The cost to replace the asset is greater than the cost of recovery of the asset
B. The cost to replace the asset is less than the cost of protect the asset
C. The cost to protect the asset is greater than the cost of recovery of the asset.
D. The cost to replace the asset is less than the cost of recovery of the asset
E. The cost to protect the asset is less than the cost of recovery of the asset.
Answer: E

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NO.16 It has come to your attention that some host on the web has tried to do some reconnaissance on your
network and send a VRFY command to try and steal user names. What type of attack was used
against your network?
A. SMTP attack
B. Web browser attack
C. IMAP attack
D. IP Spoofing
E. Account scan
Answer: A

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NO.17 You have been hired at a large company to manage the network security issues. Prior to your
arrival, there was no one dedicated to security, so you are starting at the beginning. You hold a
meeting and are discussing the main functions and features of network security. One of your
assistants asks what the function of Authentication in network security is. Which of the following
best describes Authentication?
A. Data communications as well as emails need to be protected for privacy and Authentication.
Authentication ensures the privacy of
data on the network system.
B. Authentication is a security principle that ensures the continuous accuracy of data and information
stored within network systems.
Upon receiving the email or data communication, authentication must be verified to ensure that the
message has not been altered,
modified, or added to or subtracted from in transit by unauthorized users.
C. The security must limit user privileges to minimize the risk of unauthorized access to sensitive
information and areas of the
network that only authorized users should only be allowed to access.
D. Security must be established to prevent parties in a data transaction from denying their participation
after the business transaction
has occurred. This establishes authentication for the transaction itself for all parties involved in the
transaction.
E. Authentication verifies users to be who they say they are. In data communications, authenticating the
sender is necessary to verify
that the data came from the right source. The receiver is authenticated as well to verify that the data is
going to the right
destination.
Answer: E

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NO.18 You are the firewall administrator for your company and you have just learned that the
Server administrators are gearing up support an L2TP based VPN solution. You are told
to be sure that your firewall rule sets will not hinder the performance of the VPN. Which
of the following ports will you have to allow through the firewall?
A. TCP 1701
B. UDP 1701
C. TCP 443
D. UDP 443
E. TCP1601
Answer: B

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NO.19 The main reason you have been hired at a company is to bring the network security of the
organization up to current standards. A high priority is to have a full security audit of the network
as soon as possible. You have chosen an Operational Audit and are describing it to your coworkers.
Which of the following best describes an Operational audit?
A. This type of audit is typically done by a contracted external team of security experts who check for
policy compliance.
B. This type of audit is usually done by internal resources to examine the current daily and on-going
activities within a network
system for compliance with an established security policy.
C. This type of audit is typically done by an internal team who ensures the security measures are up to
international standards.
D. This type of audit is usually done by the current network administrators who ensure the security
measures are up to international
standards.
E. This type of audit is usually conducted by external resources and may be a review or audit of detailed
audit logs.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Your company has decided to allow certain people to work from home. The work that they do does
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personal high-speed DSL connections at their homes. You have been given the task of figuring out
how to get your coworkers to connect to your company's network securely and reliably. What
technology can you use to solve your problem most effectively?
A. Dedicated Leased Lines (ISDN or T1)
B. Dial-Up via PSTN lines.
C. VPN
D. Firewall
E. IDS
Answer: C

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Exam Code: PMI-001
Exam Name: PMI (Project Management Professional)
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NO.1 Which of the following is the distinguishing characteristic between the network
diagram and the Gantt chart?
A. Few resources
B. Key milestones
C. Critical dates
D. Critical dependencies
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following is the MAIN reason for including incentive clauses in a
contract?
A. Reducing costs to the buyer.
B. Controlling contractor costs.
C. Aligning contractor and buyer goals.
D. Reducing production costs.
E. Reducing contractor risk.
Answer: C

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NO.3 When preparing the probability distribution of cost outcomes for a project, what is
the estimate with a 15% probability of being exceeded approximately one standard
deviation ___________?
A. Above the mean.
B. Below the mean.
C. Below the median.
D. Above the median.
Answer: A

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NO.4 The "Cost of quality" project management concept includes ____?
A. The costs involved when changes are made to the requirements
B. The costs of ensuring that requirements are conformed to.
C. The costs incurred when requirements are exceeded.
D. The costs involved with quality control requirements.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following is NOT an essential regarding a project close-out?
A. Documenting formal acceptance of the product.
B. Documenting the final risk assessment.
C. Documenting the lessons learned.
D. Documenting the final project scope
E. None of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following statements depicts the key difference between contract
close-out and administrative closure?
A. Contract close-out formalizes project completion.
B. Contract close-out includes product verification.
C. Contract close-out includes updating records with final results.
D. Administrative closure includes procurement audits.
E. None of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following is NOT an indirect cost?
A. Insurance costs.
B. Payroll tax cost.
C. Subcontract costs.
D. Accounting support costs.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which technique would you be using if you analyze which sequence of activities has
the least amount of flexibility when you need to predict project duration?
A. Critical path
B. Dependency diagramming
C. PERT
D. Gantt chart
E. Monte Carlo method
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following should be done by the project manager upon completion of
the project?
A. Planning a turnover meeting.
B. Obtaining a sign-off from the customer.
C. Team celebration.
D. Project evaluation.
E. Performance evaluation of team members.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following represents the pinnacle of Maslow's hierarchy of needs?
A. Survival.
B. Self-actualization.
C. Safety.
D. Esteem.
E. Physiological satisfaction.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which of the following represents the final task during project close-out?
A. Reassignment of team member.
B. Verification that contractual obligations were met.
C. Transferring the deliverables to the client.
D. Completion of performance/lessons-learned records.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Under which of the following circumstances would project management is the NOT
be the preferred management approach?
A. Cross functional tasks.
B. Unique operations.
C. Product manufacturing environment.
D. Time-constrained deliverables.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Certain resources have been added to tasks on the critical path so as to reduce the
project duration. As a result the plan should then be reviewed for the:
A. Possible lag time on other paths.
B. Resource assigned to other tasks on the critical path.
C. The most time consuming task remaining in the plan.
D. Emergence of a new critical path.
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which of the following is illustrated by a resource histogram?
A. The expected requirements for critical path activities.
B. The expected resource usage by time period.
C. The resource assignments by work package.
D. The resource assignments by activities.
E. All of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.15 What does a benefit-cost ratio of 3.22 indicate?
A. A profit of s3.22 per unit produced.
B. A payback of s3.22 for each dollar expended.
C. The percentage of resources assigned to other tasks on the critical path.
D. The gold plating result.
E. A profit of s3.22 for each dollar expended.
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which of the following statements BEST describes what project progress reports
are?
A. It is used to predict future status and progress.
B. The project sponsor makes the most use of it.
C. It is an important communications element.
D. It is needed on a weekly basis.
Answer: C

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NO.17 What is the job title of the person who is primarily responsible for the quality of
deliverables?
A. The quality control inspector.
B. The quality controller.
C. The design engineer.
D. The project manager.
E. The quality manager.
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which of the following are included in cost control? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Informing stakeholders of changes.
B. Preparing cost estimates.
C. Recording appropriate changes to the cost baseline.
D. Monitoring cost performance.
Answer: A, C, D

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NO.19 Which of the following are indicative of duration estimates?
A. How many hours a resource will work on an activity.
B. When an activity is expected to start.
C. How many work periods an activity is expected to last.
D. When an activity is expected to finish.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which of the following factors are NOT included in cost control?
A. Preparation of cost estimates.
B. Informing stakeholders of changes.
C. Monitoring cost performance.
D. Recording appropriate changes to the cost baseline.
Answer: A

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NO.21 Which of the following describes Fast Tracking?
A. Circumventing loopholes.
B. Developing workarounds for previous problems.
C. Increased project risk.
D. Getting people to work longer hours in overtime.
E. Meeting schedule objectives by adding resources.
Answer: C

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NO.22 Taking the following table into account, where would corrective action be MOST
effective when you make use of Pareto's Rule?
Origin of Problem Percent of Problems
Design 60
Development 15
Prototype 10
Testing 10
Fabrication 5
A. Development
B. Prototype
C. Fabrication
D. Design
E. Testing
Answer: D

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NO.23 In which of the following circumstances is it BEST to make use of the project
management approach? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Cross functional tasks.
B. Unique operations.
C. Product manufacturing environment.
D. Time-constrained deliverables.
E. Production-line environment.
Answer: A, B, D

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NO.24 Which of the following requires an expenditure of the resources when working
within an arrow diagramming method?
A. Histograms.
B. Accounting support costs.
C. Pareto diagram.
D. Milestone events.
E. Path activities.
Answer: B

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NO.25 What would be the cost performance index if BCWP =350, ACWP = 400, and BCWS = 325? Note:
Budgeted Cost of
Work Performed (BCWP), Actual Cost of Work Performed (ACWP) and Budget Cost of Work Schedule
(BCWS)
A. 0.813
B. 1.078
C. 1.143
D. 0.875
Answer: D

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NO.26 Which of the following is NOT included in activity duration estimated?
A. Project team knowledge.
B. Commercial duration databases.
C. Time studies.
D. Information from previous experience.
E. None of the above.
Answer: C

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NO.27 Which of the following represents the BEST process to accomplish resource
planning?
A. Identifying the required resources in the project charter
B. Identifying the available resources and allocate them to all activities in the current
phase of the project.
C. Identifying the required resources and allocate them to all project activities.
D. Identifying the resources that performed past similar projects, and allocate them to all
project activities
E. None of the above
Answer: C

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NO.28 Which of the following represents a consequence to the project in the event of a
resource being added to the project team during execution?
A. Shorter project completion schedule.
B. An indeterminable effect.
C. A requirement for a scope change.
D. An increase in project quality.
Answer: B

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NO.29 Consider the following situation: The customer was given a monthly report that
indicates zero schedule variance. One of the teams members are aware of at least
one milestone that has not been achieved. This missed milestone will result in an
overall delay in the project.
Which of the following items were not reported on adequately?
A. Critical path status
B. Risk analysis
C. Communication plan variance
D. Resource management plan
E. All of the above
Answer: A

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NO.30 Where does comparing actual to baseline schedules, examining the statement of
work, understanding cost overruns, and assessing risk all occur?
A. Stakeholder meeting.
B. Resource leveling activity.
C. Project audit.
D. Contract negotiation.
Answer: C

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Exam Name: Zend-Technologies (Zend PHP 5 Certification)
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NO.1 Given the following code, what will be the value of $a?
$a = array('a', 'b');
array_push($a, array(1, 2));
A. array('a', 'b', 1, 2)
B. array(1, 2, 'a', 'b')
C. array(array(1, 2), 'a', 'b')
D. None of the above
Answer: D

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NO.2 You work for a shared hosting provider, and your supervisor asks you to disable user scripts to
dynamically load PHP extensions using the dl() function. How can you do this? (Choose 2)
A. Set enable_dl to Off in the server's php.ini configuration file.
B. Add dl to the current value of disable_functions in the server's php.ini configuration file.
C. Add dl to the current value of disable_classes in the server's php.ini configuration file.
D. Write a custom function called dl(), save it under the name prepend.inc and then set the
auto_prepend_file directive to prepend.inc in php.ini.
Answer: AB

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NO.3 What is the output of the following script?
1 <?php
2 class a
3 {
4 public $val;
5 }
6
7 function renderVal (a $a)
8 {
9 if ($a) {
10 echo $a->val;
11 }
12 }
13
14 renderVal (null);
15 ?>
A. A syntax error in the function declaration line
B. An error, because null is not an instance of 'a'
C. Nothing, because a null value is being passed to renderVal()
D. NULL
Answer: B

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NO.4 How many elements does the $matches array contain after the following function call is performed?
preg_match('/

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NO.1 What is the maximum number of recursive calls that can be made utilizing a custom function in
FileMaker Pro 11 Advanced?
A. 10,000
B. 32,000
C. 50,000
D. 64,000
Answer: C

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NO.2 Consider two FileMaker files, Collection and Item, where tables from Item are included in the
Relationships Graph of Collection.
Which method will preserve all functionality in the Relationships Graph of Collection after renaming the
Item file to Artifact?
A. delete referenced Item table occurrences in the Relationships Graph for Collection and recreate them
for Artifact
B. click the Repair Reference button in the Relationships Graph for Collection and reset the file path
C. choose File > Manage > External Data Sources... for Collection and reset the file path
D. select referenced Item table occurrences in the Relationships Graph for Collection and right-click to
choose Rename File Source...
E. choose the File > Recover... menu in FileMaker Pro 11 Advanced, select the Collection file, then
choose Repair References under Advanced Recover Options
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which two features require indexing in order to work? (Choose two.)
A. List function
B. Dynamic subsummary reports
C. Auto-complete using existing values
D. Dynamic value lists based on FileMaker tables
E. Add Leading Group by <field name> in Table View
Answer: CD

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NO.4 Which two statements are true about field indexing in FileMaker Pro 11? (Choose two.)
A. Calculation fields cannot be indexed.
B. Indexing improves the speed at which sorts are performed.
C. To establish a relationship between two fields, both fields are required to be indexed.
D. A field must be indexed in order for Auto-complete using previously entered values to function.
E. Minimal indexing indicates that either the value index or the word index has been created, but not both.
Answer: DE

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NO.5 A new database is created with two tables, Client and Contracts. The only modification made on the
Relationships Graph is to establish a relationship between them which is set to delete related records in
Contracts when a record in Client is deleted.
What happens when the Client table occurrence is deleted from the Relationships Graph?
A. Since it is the only occurrence of the Client table on the graph, it can not be deleted.
B. Any records in the Contracts table that were related to matching Client records are deleted.
C. The formula in the calculation field Name Full (defined as Name First & " " & Name Last) will be broken.
D. Any records in the Contracts table that were related to matching Client records will have values in the
Client ID field deleted.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which two statements are true about FileMaker Pro 11 relationships? (Choose two.)
A. A relationship defined with an X (cross product) will only include records with non-matching match field
values.
B. Valid relationships can include unindexed match fields.
C. The % (contains) operator can be used for join criteria that include one unindexed match field.
D. When editing match fields for a relationship, no more than 16 pairs of join criteria can be used.
E. A relationship defined with an X (cross product) match will allow the Delete related records in this table
when a record is deleted in the other table option.
Answer: BE

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NO.7 Which script trigger could provide the functionality to prevent invalid data from being committed while
allowing the ability to revert the record?
A. OnObjectSave
B. OnObjectExit
C. OnObjectModify
D. OnObjectValidate
Answer: D

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NO.8 A Text field called FirstLast in FileMaker Pro 11 is set to auto-enter the following formula:
FirstName & LastName.
FirstName and LastName are Text fields in the same table. The option Do not evaluate if all referenced
fields are empty is unchecked. The option Do not replace existing value of field (if any) is checked.
Under which two circumstances will the value of the calculation be inserted into the FirstLast field?
(Choose two.)
A. a record is first created
B. a user selects the menu item Records > Relookup Field Contents
C. each time the value of the FirstName or LastName field is modified
D. any field value on the record is modified and the FirstLast field is empty
E. the FirstName or LastName field is modified and the FirstLast field is empty
Answer: AE

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NO.9 Which three FileMaker Pro 11 objects will display data contents even when unrelated to the current
layout's table occurrence? (Choose three.)
A. Merge variable
B. Indexed Timestamp field
C. A Text field from a shadow table
D. Globally stored Calculation field
E. Globally stored Number field placed in a portal
F. A Container field defined with the Store as reference only option enabled
Answer: ADE

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NO.10 Given the following relationship graph:
Without inspecting the data, what is known about this database?
A. There are no records in the Event table at this time.
B. The Event table occurrence references a table from an external ODBC data source.
C. There can be zero or one, but no more than one, Event record related to any Task record.
D. The corner arrows indicate all three table occurrences reference tables from external data sources.
E. From a layout based on the Event table occurrence, a portal could be drawn showing both related Task
and Volunteer data.
Answer: E

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NO.11 Given a text field myText that contains "<color>blue</color>", which formula extracts the word "blue"
from the field?
A. Filter (myText ; "color")
B. MiddleWords (myText ; 2)
C. PatternMatch (myText ; "blue")
D. Middle ( myText ; Position ( myText ; "blue" ; 1 ; 1 ) ;4)
Answer: D

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NO.12 A table in a FileMaker Pro 11 database has a field CompanyName of type Text. The following field
validation options are set for this field:
Validate data in this field only during data entry
Allow user to override during data entry
Require not empty
Display custom message if validation fails
A user imports a set of records into this table. Some records have no value in the CompanyName field.
What will occur?
A. All of the records will be imported. No error message will be displayed.
B. The user will see the custom error message, but the import will continue if the user overrides the error.
C. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will also see the specified
custom error message.
D. The user will see the custom error message, but in the case of an import, overriding the error is not
allowed and no records are imported.
E. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will see an error dialog from the
FileMaker Pro application stating that some records could not be imported due to errors, along with a
count of those records.
Answer: A

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NO.13 Given the following relationship graph:
Without inspecting the data, what can be assumed about this database?
A. In the Event table, the Event ID has no index.
B. For each Task record there will be exactly one related Volunteer record.
C. Each record in the Task table will represent a unique combination of Volunteer ID and Event ID.
D. The relationship between Task and Event will not allow the Allow creation of records... nor the Delete
related records... settings to be enabled for the Event table.
Answer: A

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NO.14 Given the following Relationships Graph for a FileMaker 11 database, where Employee, Manager, and
Trainer are all table occurrences sharing the same source table:
Assuming the relevant fields also exist in these tables, which two sets of data can be shown in portals
without modifying the graph? (Choose two.)
A. a portal of trainers that have taught their own manager
B. a portal of students that have not enrolled in a class
C. a portal showing a non-repeating list of courseware titles taught by a trainer
D. a portal of the classes that have been attended by a trainer's direct reports
E. a portal of classes in which a manager enrolled with one or more of the manager's direct reports
Answer: CD

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NO.15 What is the theoretical maximum record count in a FileMaker Pro 11 file?
A. 100 million records
B. 4 billion records
C. 8 trillion records
D. 64 quadrillion records
E. 128 quadrillion records
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which statement is true about supplemental fields added to a table occurrence based on an External
ODBC Data Source that uses MySQL?
A. These fields may be indexed.
B. All non-text data types are converted to text.
C. These fields may only be of type Summary or Calculation.
D. These fields will be added to the table definitions within MySQL.
E. These fields will be lost if the schema of the MySQL table is changed and then the Sync button in the
FileMaker Pro Manage Database dialog is used.
Answer: C

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NO.17 What is the maximum number of files that can be hosted on FileMaker Server 11 Advanced?
A. 100
B. 125
C. 250
D. 999
Answer: B

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NO.18 Given a text field Full Name, Auto-Enter by Calculated value has been selected in field options, using
the following formula:
name First & " " & Name Last
The developer then disables (unchecks) the option Do not replace existing value of field (if any).
for which two cases will the results of the specified formula be inserted into the field Full Name? (Choose
two.)
A. when the record is first created
B. when the field Full Name itself is modified
C. only when the field Full Name was previously empty
D. when either of the fields Name First or Name Last are modified
E. when the field Full Name itself is modified and the record is committed
Answer: AD

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NO.19 Consider a FileMaker Pro 11 database with the following tables and fields:
Assuming only the above relationships between table occurrences, using sorting if necessary, which two
actions can be performed? (Choose two.)
A. create a value list that shows all Invoices for a chosen Customer
B. create a value list on a Product layout which displays all Customers
C. find all of the Customers who have ever ordered a specific Product
D. create a portal to display each Product that has been ordered by a Customer
E. display all records from the Customer table in a portal on a layout for an Invoice Item record
Answer: BE

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NO.20 Which three are directly selectable options in the Validation tab of the field options dialog in FileMaker
Pro 11? (Choose three.)
A. Existing value
B. Member of value list
C. Strict data type: Integer
D. Strict data type: Time of Day
E. Strict data type: Alphanumeric
F. Minimum number of characters
Answer: ABD

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Exam Code: VCP-411
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NO.1 Which of the following are valid methods of creating a Host Profile (Choose Two)?
A. Create a profile using the Profile Editor
B. Create a profile from an existing ESX 4 Host
C. Import a profile from an existing .vpf file
D. Clone a profile from an existing profile
Answer: BC

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NO.2 Creating which of the following optional partitions would change the default partition size for /?
A. /tmp
B. /home
C. /var/log
D. /usr
Answer: D

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NO.3 What are two reasons why a company would choose to use VMware ESXi instead of using VMware
Server 2? (Choose Two)
A. The company wants to be able to patch the servers hosting their virtual machines with zero virtual
machine downtime
B. The company is virtualizing several physical servers and wants a centralized management option
C. The company needs to access their virtual machines remotely and VMware Server 2 does not support
a remote console option
D. The company needs the ability to run dual-processor virtual machines
Answer: AB

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NO.4 An ESX Administrator plans to install additional supported components on the ESX Server that would
increase the memory requirements for the Service Console. Which ESX Server partition would also need
to be increased during as a result?
A. /
B. vmfs3
C. swap
D. /boot
Answer: C

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NO.5 An administrator is installing ESX 4.0 on a physical server. Which of the following components would
need to be modified or replaced to support a successful ?
A. 4 Intel PRO 1000 Network Adapters
B. 2 LSI Logic LSI7202XP-LC Fibre Channel HBAs
C. 2 AMD Opteron CPUs
D. 4GB RAM
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following partitions is specific to ESXi 4.0?
A. usr
B. vmkcore
C. scratch
D. swap
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following are valid sub-profile configurations that may be edited with the Host Profile editor
(Choose Three)?
A. Advanced
B. Virtual Machine Options
C. Security
D. Memory Reservation
E. CPU Reservation
Answer: ACD

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NO.8 An administrator is installing vCenter. The selected database is Oracle 11g. Which of the following
steps are required to configure the database for use with vCenter (Choose Two)?
A. Use a Script to Create the Oracle Database Schema
B. Use a Script to Create a Local or Remote Database
C. Configure an Oracle Database User
D. Configure an Oracle Connection for Local or Remote Access
Answer: CD

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NO.9 The default swap partition size for ESX 4.0 is which of the following?
A. 800MB
B. 1.6GB
C. 544MB
D. 600MB
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following would prevent the application of a Host Profile to an ESX Host (Choose Two)?
A. The host is an ESXi Host
B. The host has not been placed into Maintenance Mode
C. The host has multiple profiles attached
D. The host is an ESX 3.5 Host
Answer: BD

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NO.11 Which of the following is a benefit of ESXi over ESX?
A. Improved Fault Isolation
B. Increased Security and Reliability
C. Dynamic Resource Allocation
D. Memory Overcommitment
Answer: B

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NO.12 When installing ESX 4.0, where is the Service Console file system located?
A. In a virtual disk on a local VMFS datastore
B. In a virtual disk on a local or shared VMFS datastore
C. On a local physical disk or on a mapped SAN LUN
D. On a local physical disk
Answer: A

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NO.13 An administrator is installing vCenter in a virtual machine. The selected database is Microsoft SQL
Server 2005. Which of the following actions must be taken before vCenter is installed (Choose Two)?
A. If the guest OS has MSXML Core Services 6.0 installed, it must be removed
B. The Microsoft SQL Native Client should be removed
C. The Microsoft SQL Server Client should be removed
D. If the guest OS is Windows XP, MDAC 2.8 SP1 must be applied
Answer: AD

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NO.14 Which of the following are modules that are not pre-installed and must be added to a vCenter
(Choose Three)?
A. VMware vCenter Converter
B. VMware vCenter Guided Consolidation
C. VMware vCenter Orchestrator
D. VMware vCenter Update Manager
E. VMware vCenter Storage Monitoring
Answer: ABD

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NO.15 An administrator is installing an ESX Host to boot from a SAN LUN. The storage array is an
active/passive array. After configuring the boot LUN and installing ESX, the system does not boot properly.
Which of the following could cause this issue?
A. The Storage Processor port specified in the BIOS configuration of the HBA is passive
B. The LUN specified in the BIOS configuration of the HBA is active
C. The Storage Processor port specified in the BIOS configuration of the HBA is active
D. The LUN specified in the BIOS configuration of the HBA is passive
Answer: A

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NO.16 When configuring the Oracle Connection to work remotely with vCenter Server, which of the following
is required (Choose Two)?
A. The tnsnames.ora file must be edited with the managed host name
B. The TNS Service Name option must be configured in the ODBC DSN
C. Use the Net8 Conf iguration Utility to add the service name
D. Add the entry open_cursors = 300 to the C:.ora file
Answer: AB

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NO.17 Which of the following are benefits of ESXi over ESX (Choose Two)?
A. RCLI support
B. Scripted
C. Smaller Attack Surface
D. Less Code to Patch
Answer: CD

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NO.18 Under which of the following conditions would an administrator consider using the Boot from SAN
option for the ESX Host (Choose Two)?
A. When concern exists that contention might occur between the Service Console and the VMkernel
B. When using Microsoft Cluster Service
C. To easily replicate the Service Console to a remote site
D. In diskless hardware configurations
Answer: CD

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NO.19 An administrator is checking a HA/DRS Cluster for Compliance. Which of the following occurs if a host
profile is not attached to the cluster.?
A. The compliance check asks for a valid host profile
B. The compliance check uses the default Datacenter host profile
C. The compliance check generates an error
D. The cluster is checked for specific HA, DRS and DPM cluster requirements
Answer: D

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NO.20 What is the proper LUN Masking configuration for LUNs presented to an ESX Host when using the
Boot from SAN option?
A. The Boot LUN should be masked so that only one ESX Host can see the LUN, while the datastore
LUNS should be masked so that all ESX Hosts can see the LUNs
B. The Boot LUN and datastore LUNS should be masked so that all ESX Hosts can see the LUNs
C. The Boot LUN should be masked so that all ESX Hosts can see the LUN, while the datastore LUNS
should be masked so that only one ESX Host can see the LUNs
D. The Boot LUN and datastore LUNS should be masked so that only one ESX Host can see the LUNs
Answer: A

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