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Exam Code: 000-220
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Sterling Connect:Direct, Administration)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 In Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX, an administrator is setting up multiple nodes in a load balancing
environment on a cluster file system (not an NFS). The administrator needs to specify a shared area
where the multiple nodes can place return code files and copy checkpoint information, so that the various
nodes are aware of activity. What parameter is used to specify this?
A. ndm.path
B. comm.info
C. quiesce.resume
D. snode.work.path
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following is supported by Sterling Connect:Direct for z/OS V1 FMH flows?
A. XDR Keywords
B. Mapped DSECTS
C. ZLIB Compression
D. Cyclic redundancy check (CRC)
Answer: B

IBM   000-220   000-220

NO.3 A Sterling Connect:Direct for z/OS administrator navigated to the Secure+ Admin Tool: Main
Screen?shown here: Which Connect:Direct Secure+ remote node supports the STS encryption protocol?
A. SECURE.REMOTE01
B. SECURE.REMOTE02
C. SECURE.REMOTE03
D. SECURE.REMOTE04
Answer: B

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NO.4 An administrator installed Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX in the directory /opt/connect and defined
the local node name as CDUNIX01. The administrator wants to start Connect:Direct for UNIX Command
Line Interface (CLI) client to submit a process. Which environment variable must the administrator set to
get access to this client?
A. PATH=/opt/connect/ndm/bin/direct
B. PATH=/opt/connect/ndm/bin/ndmcli
C. NDMAPICFG=/opt/connect/ndm/cfg/cliapi/ndmapi.cfg
D. NDMAPICFG=/opt/connect/ndm/cfg/CDUNIX01/initparm.cfg
Answer: C

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NO.5 One of the benefits of using Sterling Connect:Direct is that it:
A. focuses on message switching.
B. utilizes proprietary data formatting.
C. provides 24 x 365 unattended operation.
D. offers manual restart through the use of email.
Answer: C

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NO.6 A Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows and UNIX user wants to get a list of processes that completed
successfully. The command begins with: select statistics ccode=(=,0) recids=... ; Which Record Id filters
will complete this command?
A. CTRC
B. PRED
C. PSED
D. PSTR
Answer: B

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NO.7 An administrator installed Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows node on a new server. The
administrator also defined new Functional Authorities for another user. When the user logs onto the
server and opens Connect:Direct Requester for the first time, the node is not displayed. The Nodes view
is empty. What should the user do in order to attach to the new node?
A. Add the new node to the netmap.
B. Contact the administrator and ask to verify access.
C. Logon to the server with the administrator's account.
D. Select Node>Connection Settings>Insert Node and enter the local node information.
Answer: D

IBM   000-220   000-220

NO.8 Which utility can be used via command line to export and import users and netmap settings in Sterling
Connect:Direct for Windows?
A. Client Connection Utility
B. Logon Configuration Utility (LCU)
C. Connect:Direct Configuration Utility
D. Connect:Direct Command Line Interface (CLI)
Answer: C

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NO.9 A Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows environment is installed to allow for high availability, by
assigning a virtual IP address to the cluster to which each node is then bound to. Which local node
parameter is used to specify this virtual IP address?
A. node.check
B. tcp.host.port
C. outgoing.address
D. Alternate Comminfo
Answer: C

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NO.10 A Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows and UNIX user wants to determine the outcome of process
numbers 10 to 15. What command can retrieve this information?
A. select statistics pnumber=(10-15);
B. select statistics pnumber=(10..15);
C. select statistics pnumber=10,11,12,13,14,15;
D. select statistics pnumber=(10,11,12,13,14,15);
Answer: D

IBM   000-220   000-220

NO.11 When configuring a node in Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows, which field is found on the General
properties tab in the CD Admin Tool?
A. API IP Address
B. Local LU Name
C. Max PNode Sessions
D. Enable TCP/IP Support
Answer: C

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NO.12 In Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows, which parameter is required when configuring a remote node
using Advanced Program to Program Communication (APPC)?
A. Partner LU Name
B. Alternate Comminfo
C. Host Name/IP Address
D. UDT communication path name
Answer: A

IBM   000-220   000-220

NO.13 A Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows and UNIX user is troubleshooting a problem for either changing,
deleting, selecting or terminating a process. Which diagnostic trace option should be used?
A. cmgr
B. pmgr
C. smgr
D. comm
Answer: B

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NO.14 A Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows administrator needs to verify that the latest fixes have been
applied. Which option will show the release and maintenance level of the Windows node?
A. SPAdmin
B. Admin Tool
C. Message Lookup
D. Configuration Utility
Answer: B

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NO.15 In Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX, in which path is the file ndmproc located?
A. ndm/lib/
B. ndm/bin/
C. ndm/cfg/cliapi/
D. ndm/cfg/cd_node/
Answer: B

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NO.16 A SNIFFER trace shows the following entries:
A NETSTAT display was performed. What is the correct connection state that a user should expect?
A. LAST ACK
B. FIN WAIT1
C. ESTABLISHED
D. The administrator would NOT expect to see a connection show up.
Answer: D

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NO.17 An administrator wants to stop Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX but Connect:Direct needs to run all
executing processes to completion before shutting down. Which command should be submitted?
A. stop;
B. stop step;
C. stop force;
D. stop immediate;
Answer: A

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NO.18 A Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX administrator needs to submit a process directly into the Execution
queue in order to bypass the Wait queue. Which command will accomplish this task?
A. submit
B. submit hold=no
C. submit retain=no
D. submit maxdelay=0
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which component is invoked to stop Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX?
A. Security Exit
B. User Manager
C. Session Manager
D. Process Manager
Answer: D

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NO.20 A user is building a process to send a compressed ZIP archive file to a remote node. What
compression setting is most efficient and provides the best performance for this type of file?
A. COMPRESS Extended
B. COMPRESS PRIMECHAR=X'20'
C. COMPRESS Extended=(CMPrlevel=9,WINdowsize=15,MEMlevel=9)
D. No compression.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-120
Exam Name: IBM (Academic Associate: IBM i 7 Administration)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 41 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 Programmers are having issues with the RPG compiler, and it has been determined that a fix must be
ordered. Which type of PTF is most appropriate?
A. Fix groups
B. Service packs
C. Individual fixes
D. Cumulative PTF packages
Answer: C

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NO.2 IBM i provides the capability to use digital certificates to sign objects. What objects, other than
Programs (*PGM). Service programs (*SRVPGM) and Modules (*MODULE) may be signed?
A. Libraries(*LIB)
SQL Packages (*SQLPKG)
B. Query definitions (*QRYDFN)
Journals (*JRN)
C. Populated save files (*FILE SAVF)
Commands (*CMD)
D. Message queues (*MSGQ)
Populated data Queues (*DTAQ)
E. Physical files (*FILE PF-DTA)
User Profiles (*USRPRF)
Answer: A

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NO.3 An administrator plans to use a single LPAR and Management Central to manage PTFs for other
systems in the enterprise. What is the most important consideration when deciding the baseline.?
A. All systems are the same OS level.
B. All systems are at the same PTFGRP level
C. All systems are at the same test fix level.
D. All systems are at the same Cumulative level
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the purpose of System Managed Access Path Protection (SMAPP)?
A. To prevent excessive I/O queuing when updating access paths
B. To automatically save file access data for security auditing
C. To improve application run time by providing ¯ sho rt cu
to data
D. To reduce recovery time by journaling changes in access path size and location
Answer: B

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NO.5 User HOK tries to login and received the message "User profile cannot sign on." What is the most likely
cause for the error?
A. The user's profile has been deleted.
B. The user's profile has been disabled.
C. The OMAXSIGN system value is set to 1.
D. The OMAXSGNACN system value is set to 1
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 00M-641
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Exceptional Web Experience Sales Mastery Test v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 What is a general definition of an IBM WebSphere Portal Industry Template?
A. It is a website-in-a-box
B. It is a downloadable PDF document
C. It is an introductory-priced services engagement
D. It is the fullest featured offering of WebSphere Portal
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is a suggested sales tactic to use when a customer requests a specific point solution for their
environment, like ° j us t need an i Phone app f o r m y w ebs it e , t ha t' s a l ¡ ±
A. Refer them to Apple's website.
B. Start lowering the price of your services and software bid.
C. Invite your technical architect to tell them about developing iPhone apps.
D. Show them a demo of all the possibilities that an Exceptional Web Experience can offer them.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What development tool can create template-based portlets as well as mobile applications for
WebSphere Portal?
A. IBM Web Content Manager
B. IBM Lotus Domino Designer
C. IBM Mashup Center
D. IBM Web Experience Factory
Answer: D

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NO.4 At a high level, WebSphere Portal allows you to _____________.
A. defragment unbuffered sectors, optimize disk storage, integrate RAID devices
B. create pivot tables, summarize column data, paste across multiple cells
C. integrate content, applications and processes; reach out to a wide variety of devices, and engage
users so they can create, target, socialize, optimize and realize.
D. color sample across images, retouch blurry photos, create freehand mask selections
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is the name of the interactive prospecting tool that you can take your customers through to get a
sense of what they need to improve on to become a social business.?
A. WebSphere Portal Zone
B. ICAT (IBM Collaboration Assessment Tool)
C. IBM Smarter Planet
D. Lotus Greenhouse
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-611
Exam Name: IBM (DB2 10.1 DBA for Linux, UNIX, and Windows)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 118 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 You have an High Availability and Disaster Recovery (HADR) environment set up and you want to read
from the standby database. What must you do?
A. Assign the value ON to the DB2_HADR_ROS registry variable.
B. Assign the value ON to the DB2_HADR_SNAP registry variable.
C. Execute the STOP HADR command to temporarily break the HADR connection to the standby.
D. Execute the TAKEOVER HADR command to instruct the standby database to takeover as the new
primary database.
Answer: A

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NO.2 The values of the automatic maintenance database configuration parameters for a database named
SAMPLE are as follows:
What commands must be run to enable real-time statistics collection on the SAMPLE database?
A. UPDATE DB CFG FOR sample USING AUTO_RUNSTATS ON; UPDATE DB CFG FOR sample
USING AUTO_STMT_STATS ON;
B. UPDATE DB CFG FOR sample USING AUTO_TBL_MAINT ON; UPDATE DB CFG FOR sample
USING AUTO_RUNSTATS ON; UPDATE DB CFG FOR sample USING AUTO_STMT_STATS ON;
C. UPDATE DB CFG FOR sample USING AUTO_TBL_MAINT ON; UPDATE DB CFG FOR sample
USING AUTO_RUNSTATS ON; UPDATE DB CFG FOR sample USING AUTO_STATS_VIEWS ON; D.
UPDATE DB CFG FOR sample USING AUTO_RUNSTATS ON; UPDATE DB CFG FOR sample USING
AUTO_STATS_VIEWS ON;
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which command will define the alternate diagnostic data directory path as /db2data/db2dump2?
A. db2set ALT_DIAGPATH=/db2data/db2dump2
B. db2set SECONDARY_DIAGPATH=/db2data/db2dump2
C. UPDATE DBM CFG USING ALT_DIAGPATH /db2data/db2dump2
D. UPDATE DBM CFG USING SECONDARY_DIAGPATH /db2data/db2dump2
Answer: C

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NO.4 In IBM Data Studio, where can you schedule script-based jobs?
A. Job Console
B. Job Manager
C. Task Manager
D. Utilities Console
Answer: B

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NO.5 A table named SALES was created as follows:
If management wants to use Label-Based Access Control (LBAC) to protect individual rows in the SALES
table, and the security policy needed (SEC_POLICY) has already been created, what must be done to
protect the table as desired?
A. Associate the SEC_POLICY security policy with the SALES table.
B. Add a column with the DB2SECURITYLABEL data type to the SALES table.
C. Add a column with the DB2SECURITYLABEL data type to the SALES table and then associate the
SEC_POLICY security policy with the table.
D. Add a SECURED WITH clause to every column in the SALES table and then associate the
SEC_POLICY security policy with the SALES table.
Answer: C

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NO.6 What are two types of security label components that can be used with Label-Based Access Control
(LBAC)? (Choose two).
A. Set
B. Tree
C. Group
D. Range
E. Hierarchy
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 Which statement is correct when describing trusted contexts?
A. A trusted context defines a trust relationship for a connection between the database and an external
entity.
B. A trusted context promotes the authorization level of the connection initiator and grants them DBADM
authority.
C. A trusted context defines a trust relationship between a user and a table allowing that user additional
capabilities.
D. A trusted context gives the database connection the ability to bypass auditing since authentication has
already occurred.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Where are column mask definitions stored?
A. In the table definition
B. In the system catalog
C. In the table space metadata
D. In the database configuration file
Answer: B

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NO.9 Due to a hardware failure, it appears that there may be some corruption in database DB_1 as DB2 is
reporting a "bad page". DB2DART is performed for the entire database and it appears that several bad
pages were detected in table space TBSP_1.
What command can be used to recover the database and repair the corruption in table space TBSP_1?
A. RESTART DATABASE
B. RECOVER DATABASE
C. RESTORE TABLESPACE
D. ROLLFORWARD DATABASE
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which command can be used to restore a corrupted database using only the recovery history file?
A. RESTART DATABASE
B. RECOVER DATABASE
C. RESTORE DATABASE
D. ROLLFORWARD DATABASE
Answer: B

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NO.11 What is the correct procedure for recovering a dropped table when DROPPED TABLE RECOVERY has
been enabled and the database must remain online?
A. Run the RECOVER DATABASE command with the RECOVER DROPPED TABLE option to restore the
database and recover the droppedtable.
B. Run the RECOVER DATABASE command with the RECOVER DROPPED TABLE option to restore the
appropriate table space and recover thedropped table.
C. Restore the database from a backup image that was taken before the table was dropped; run the
ROLLFORWARD DATABASE command withthe RECOVER DROPPED TABLE option to restore the
database and recover the dropped table.
D. Restore the appropriate table space from a backup image that was taken before the table was dropped;
run the ROLLFORWARD DATABASEcommand with the RECOVER DROPPED TABLE option to restore
the appropriate table space and recover the dropped table.
Answer: D

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NO.12 If a single node database is actively being used by applications when a power failure occurs, what
method is used to bring the database back to a consistent state once power has been restored.?
A. Crash recovery
B. Version recovery
C. Disaster recovery
D. Roll-forward recovery
Answer: A

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NO.13 What is the MAX_LOG database configuration parameter used for?
A. To limit how many log files a single transaction can span.
B. To limit the percentage of primary log space a running transaction can consume.
C. To limit the total number of primary and secondary log files a database can consume.
D. To limit the total number of secondary log files a transaction can consume before infinite logging is
enabled.
Answer: B

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NO.14 What unit of measurement is used to represent the cumulative total cost of a node in a Visual Explain
access plan diagram?
A. CPU cycles
B. Elapsed time, in milliseconds
C. Processing instructions performed
D. Timerons
Answer: D

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NO.15 If the current value for self-tuning memory is: Self Tuning Memory (SELF_TUNING_MEM) = ON
(Inactive) Which statement is true?
A. Self-tuning is occurring only on the instance memory area.
B. The memory tuner is actively tuning the memory on the system.
C. Self-tuning is not occurring because it is waiting for the database to be recycled.
D. Self-tuning is not occurring because there are less than two memory consumers enabled.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-N24
Exam Name: IBM (IBM QRadar Technical Sales Mastery Test v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 42 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 Write a regular expression that extracts only the username from the string: Username=miths?Write a
regular expression that extracts only the username from the string: Username=?miths
A. \?smith)\?\?smith)\
B. Ame=?.*?)\?Ame=?.*?)\
C. =\?.*?)
D. ame\=\?.*?)\?ame\=\?.*?)\
Answer: D

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NO.2 What characteristic distinguishes QRadar from other SIM/SIEM solutions?
A. QRadar is the only solution that works in a heterogeneous environment.
B. QRadar has the best correlation engine.
C. QRadar supports many more devices.
D. QRadar is the only SIM/SIEM solution that natively processes flows.
Answer: D

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NO.3 How do you add a new (supported) DSM to the system?
A. Download the rpm to the console and use the rpm command to add it.
B. You cannot add new DSMs to the system.
C. Configure autoupdate on the admin tab and manually add the DSM using the rpm command on the
console.
D. Both A and C are correct.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which method can be used to deliver log data to QRadar?
A. Syslog
B. Opsec/LEA
C. TFTP
D. Both A and B are correct
Answer: D

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NO.5 Write a regular expression that extracts only the username from the string: serID: smiths
A. rID\:\s(.*?)\s
B. Use\:\s(.*?)\s
C. rID\:(\d+)\s
D. serid\:(.*?)\?serid\:(.*?)\
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-080
Exam Name: IBM (System x Sales Fundamentals V7)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 41 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 Active Energy Manager (AEM) is provided to our clients for free, but can be upgraded for a cost. Which
one of the following is the advantage to our clients for upgrading?
A. The ability to track the power usage by their systems over time.
B. The ability to establish power caps or power savings
C. The ability to manage the power to the cooling systems in the datacenter based on the heat being
generated by the systems.
D. The ability to power off Intel processors
Answer: B

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NO.2 A System x sales professional is planning an introductory discussion with the customer's executive
management team. Which of the following is the most appropriate subject?
A. Hardware architecture
B. Performance benchmarks
C. Total cost of ownership
D. Reliability, availability, serviceability (RAS)
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which, of the following features, was first introduced with the eX5 technology?
A. Integrated virtualization with the memory
B. Processor scalability beyond 4-sockets
C. Memory scalability that is not tied to increased processor density
D. Dynamic Provisioning on "bare metal
Answer: C

IBM   000-080   000-080

NO.4 A customer wants to make sure that there are not going to be compatibility issues between a third party
HBA and their eX5 server. Which of the following IBM resources determine compatibility.?
A. xRef
B. COG
C. SSCT
D. ServerProven
Answer: D

IBM   000-080   000-080

NO.5 Which of the following is used to assist with operating system installation, system device drivers, and
other system components and requires minimal user intervention?
A. ServerGuide
B. UpdateXpress
C. Software Distribution Premium Edition
D. IBM Management Processor Command-Line Interface Utility
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 00M-242
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Commerce Solutions Supply Chain Mgmt Sales Mastery Test v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 35 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 Which of the following documents CANNOT be generated in the IBM TMS (Transportation Management
System)?
A. Shipment Manifest
B. Export Declaration
C. Master Bill of Lading
D. Custom LTL Manifest
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following is NOT a capability of the IBM WMS (Warehouse Management System)
Productivity Manager?
A. Automatic recording of productivity based on tasks performed.
B. Manual recording of productivity for tasks executed outside.
C. Pick-Pack Capabilities
D. Dynamic computation of SAM (Standard Allowable Minutes) based on historical task information.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following is NOT one of the four core functional quadrants of the TMS (Transportation
Management System) solution?
A. Optimizer
B. Execution
C. Contract Management
D. Freight Payment
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following processes CANNOT be performed by a partner?
A. Carrier On-Boarding
B. EDI Map Testing and Certification
C. Level One Support
D. New Organization Creation
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is the most common ERP/Order Management platform that IBM TMS (Transportation
Management System) platform interfaces with.?
A. Manhattan
B. AS400
C. SAP
D. Oracle
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 00M-502
Exam Name: IBM (Power Systems with IBM i Sales Professional - v2)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 45 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 Which service must a customer purchase in reference to basic defect and usage of IBM operating
systems ?
A. Service Pack
B. Support Line
C. Software Maintenance
D. Electronic Customer Support
Answer: A

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NO.2 What Input/Output devices can be offered on a 4-core Power 720 system.?
A. IOPs, HSL loop with Towers
B. SAS and SSD drives, PCI-e, Tape
C. 12X loop, SAS and SSD drives, PCI-e
D. DVD, HSL loop with Towers, Twinax controller
Answer: B

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NO.3 IBM i 7.1, in its DB2 component now supports an industry standard, XML, for exchanging information for
business processes and logiC. Why is this of value to customers and application providers?
A. Provides better query performance
B. They can encrypt a single column of data for security purposes.
C. New WRKWEBQRY functions simplfy this support and is easier to use.
D. Makes it easier to process in DB2 via XML data type and store these documents.
Answer: D

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NO.4 The Lx86 feature of PowerVM enables which of the following?
A. Running Linux Intel binary applications under POWER Linux
B. Running Windows applications under Linux implemented on iSCSI
C. Running Linux Intel binary applications in the PASE environment
D. Running Linux Intel binaries in a Windows integrated environment
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following statements about virtualization on IBM i is correct?
A. Internal storage must be mirrored for data protection.
B. Ethernet connections between partitions and applications require adapters
C. Can host storage for System X and Blades servers running VMware and Windows.
D. Can host storage for i, AIX, Linux, VMware, and Windows running in partitions
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-M608
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Retail Industry Solutions Sales Mastery Test v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 Which of the following trends is most dramatically affecting retailers' use of media for marketing?
A.The internet is a rapidly growing online medium
B.There are more than 5500 magazines in which to advertise
C.The iPhone has emerged as a new communication platform
D.Consumers pay more attention to other consumers' opinions than retailer's ads
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following capabilities is a part of driving Operational Excellence?
A.Merge workforce and task management
B.Empower store associates with product knowledge
C.Embed intelligence into client interaction
D.All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is a primary benefit to using the IBM Retail framework, for IBM's anchor account planning
process?
A.Better coordination of IBM's resources across company divisions and brands
B.Provides better software pricing
C.Assists with complex deal negotiations
D.Assists with a better customer understanding
Answer: D

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NO.4 What functionality does IBM WebSphere Commerce product deliver to the client?
A.Web applications
B.Scenario analysis
C.Business intelligence
D.Financial services
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following is a key Technology challenge faced by Retailers?
A.Retail Blurring of Segments and Channels
B.Private Label Proliferation
C.Pervasive Connectivity and Mobile Devices
D.Urban population is greater than rural population for the 1st time in human history
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-821
Exam Name: IBM (Collaborative Lifecycle Management)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 75 Questions and Answers
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Exam Code: LOT-923
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere Portal 8.0 Deployment and Administration )
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Total Q&A: 87 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 Don isdesigning a highly-available, secure, high-traffic, public website for his company. If he
wants to use IBM WebSphere Portal, what components should he consider?
A. Dynamic cache and a stand-alone, WebSphere Portal server with disaster recovery.
B. An authentication and authorization solution, a load-balancing solution, a WebSphere Portal
server
cluster with HTTP servers handling staticcontent, clustered LDAP servers and database servers.
C. A WebSphere Portal server cluster, step-up authentication, and network-attached, storage
devices.
D. An authentication and authorization solution, a business process engine, and a WebSphere Portal
server cluster.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Bob needs to integrate IBM WebSphere Portal to handle tasks from several different backend
systems as a service. Bob can create tasks and specialized workflows using which of the following?
A. Unified Task Portlet
B. IBM Rational Application Developer Edition and Standard Portlet API
C. Unified Task Developer Edition and Collaborative Services API
D. Page Builder and Portlet Wires
Answer: A

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NO.3 When setting up security for a stand-alone IBM WebSphere Portal profile that will become
part of a cluster, which of the following statements is correct?
A. Security should be set up on the stand-alone node prior to joining the deployment manager cell.
B. Security should be set up on the deployment manager cell after the node is added.
C. It makes no difference whether security is set up before or after the WebSphere Portal node joins
the
deployment manager cell.
D. The IBM WebSphere Integrated Solutions console, not WebSphere Portal security tasks, should
be
used to configure security.
Answer: B

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NO.4 George is gathering requirements for an IBM WebSphere Portal implementation. Among the
requirements is that the portal remembers the names of the most recently logged in users from a
particular browser, so that they are not required to log in each time they visit the site. How would
George
best implement this requirement?
A. George has to create a custom login portlet that reads and writes from a cookie that he has to
define.
B. George has to develop a trust association interceptor that bypasses the portal login.
C. George has to implement a third-party authentication mechanism.
D. George can use the built-in Remember Me functionality.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following direct migration paths to IBM WebSphere Portal 8.0 are supported.?
A. WebSphere Portal 5.1.0.x and 6.1.0.x.
B. WebSphere Portal 6.0.0.x and 7.0.0.x.
C. WebSphere Portal 6.1.5.x and 7.0.0.x.
D. All of the above.
Answer: C

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NO.6 IBM has confirmed that a single IBM WebSphere Portal installation can support __________
Virtual Portals.
A. 65
B. 115
C. 300
D. 215
E. All of the above.
Answer: E

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NO.7 Which option best describes the workflows that can be achieved using the IBM WebSphere
Portal Configuration Wizard?
A. Enabling security.
B. Enabling security, transferring the portal database, and connecting to an existing database.
C. Enabling security, and transferring the portal database.
D. Enabling security, transferring the portal database, connecting to an existing database, and
enabling
IBM Lotus Domino integration(collaborative features, directory integration, and so on).
Answer: B

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NO.8 Bob is building a site that is displayed using either IBM Web Content Manager or a web server.
It is not using any IBM WebSphere Portal features such as portlets. The content is static and is only
updated periodically.
What delivery mechanism is best suited for this scenario?
A. Servlet delivery
B. Pre-rendered delivery
C. Local, web-content, viewer delivery
D. Remote, web-content, viewer delivery
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following tools is not used by an IBM WebSphere Portal administrator for staging
data to a production environment?
A. Managed Pages
B. Syndication
C. Release Builder
D. XMLAccess
Answer: A

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NO.10 If errors occur during the execution of ConfigEngine tasks, which of the following log files
contain the trace information for diagnosing the configuration issues?
A. ConfigTrace.log
B. ConfigEngine.log
C. SystemOut.log
D. SystemErr.log
Answer: A

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NO.11 Sunil is designing a portal cluster for production. He is using a 32-bit version of IBM
WebSphere Portal server and has several multiprocessor servers with 16 GB of memory.
What type of cluster configuration should he use?
A. A vertical cluster, because it ensures minimal latency between cluster members.
B. A horizontal cluster, because it provides fault tolerance.
C. A combination of vertical and horizontal clusters to gain the benefits of both configuration types.
D. A multi-production cluster because it meets both high-availability and high-performance criteria.
Answer: C

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NO.12 The business units of Mary's company have needs for their own portals. However, the
demand on server resources is not great enough to require parallel installations. In response, Mary's
company selected virtual portals.
Which of the following options are available across each of the virtual portals by default?
A. Portal search
B. Document management
C. Portal property file definitions
D. Anonymous pages per virtual portal
Answer: D

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NO.13 What parameters need to be modified in the Installation Manager response file to change
the default port numbers during a silent installation?
A. -W portBlockInput.startingPortToScan=port number -W portBlockInput.endingPortToScan=port
number
-W portBlockInput.portBlockSize=blocksize
B. <data key='user.wp.admin.port,com.ibm.websphere.PORTAL.SERVER.v80'
value='<port>'/>and<data
key='user.wp.portal.port,com.ibm.websphere.PORTAL.SERVER.v80' value='<port>'/>
C. <port.admin='<port>'/>and<port.wps='<port>'/>
D. IBM WebSphere Portal always scans for active ports at 10000 and ends at 65000 during
installation.
This behavior cannot be affected usingcommand parameters.
Answer: B

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NO.14 At a high level, which of the following options best describes the sequence of steps that one
should take when setting up an IBM WebSphere Portal static cluster?
A. 1.Install and configure WebSphere Portal as a stand-alone node for each cluster node.
2.Federate each portal server node to the WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment cell
using
the addNode command.
3.Create a portal cluster using the ConfigEngine tasks.
4.Configure the cluster members to use the same database and user registry.
B. 1.UseWebSphere Application Server Network Deployment to create a managed node foreach
portal
node in the cluster.
2.Federate each of these nodes into theWebSphere Application Server Network Deployment cell
using
the addNode command.
3.Install and configure WebSphere Portal on each portal server node.
4.Use ConfigEngine tasks to configure the database, user registry, and create the cluster.
C. 1.Install WebSphere Portal on the first node, configure the database, and use the ConfigEngine
tasks
to create a profile template.
2.Prepare the first node to communicateWebSphere Application Server Network Deployment, and
use
addNode and ConfigEngine tasks toconfigure the cluster and user registry.
3.Install WebSphere Portal on additional nodes and use the profile template to configure.
4.Use the addNode and ConfigEngine tasks to federate the additional nodes and complete the
cluster
setup.
D. 1.UseWebSphere Application Server Network Deployment to create a cell and managed node for
each
portal node in the cluster.
2.Use the WebSphere Portal cluster profile template to install WebSphere Portal onto each node.
3.Use the ConfigEngine tasks to configure the nodes to use the same database and user registy.
4.Federate each of these nodes into the cluster by using the addNode and ConfigEngine tasks.
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which of the following statements correctly describes how IBM WebSphere Portal's
functionality is implemented on the IBM WebSphere Application Server?
A. WebSphere Portal is deployed as a stand-alone, Java application using WebSphere Application
Server
client libraries.
B. WebSphere Portal is deployed as an enterprise application on the WebSphere Application Server.
C. WebSphere Portal is a stand-alone web server framework and is not related to WebSphere
Application
Server.
D. WebSphere Portal is deployed as a portlet to WebSphere Application Server's portlet container.
Answer: B

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